Daily Current Affairs October 01

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October 01 | Daily Current Affairs 2026

Important Days – Daily Current Affairs October 01

1. Which constitutional Articles govern the Union Public Service Commission and State Public Service Commissions?
A) Articles 280–289
B) Articles 300–310
C) Articles 315–323
D) Articles 324–329
E) Articles 330–342
Answer: C) Articles 315–323.

Event and Location:

• Event: The Union Public Service Commission (UPSC) completed 100 years on 1 October 2026, marking a century since the establishment of India’s first Public Service Commission in 1926.
• Location: India.
• Date: 1 October 2026.

Mandates and Objectives:

• Mandates: UPSC functions as a constitutional recruiting and advisory body that conducts examinations for Union services, undertakes direct recruitment, advises on promotions, deputation, absorption, Recruitment Rules and disciplinary matters, and performs functions assigned under Article 320.
• Objectives: Its core objective is to ensure merit-based recruitment to Union services and provide constitutional safeguards and independent advice on public service appointments and related service matters.

Important Terms Explained:

• Articles 315–323: These provisions in Part XIV, Chapter II of the Constitution govern Public Service Commissions, covering their establishment, appointments, tenure, removal, functions, expenditure and reporting requirements.
• Article 320: This provision specifies the functions of Public Service Commissions, including conducting recruitment examinations and advising on appointments, promotions, disciplinary matters and other service-related issues.
• Lee Commission: Headed by Lord Lee, the commission recommended the establishment of a Public Service Commission, contributing to the creation of the first such commission in India in 1926.
• Civil Services Examination (CSE): UPSC’s flagship examination for recruitment to major civil services, conducted through Preliminary Examination, Main Examination and Interview stages.
• Civil Services Aptitude Test (CSAT): Introduced in 2011 as part of the Civil Services Preliminary Examination and made a qualifying paper in 2015 with a minimum qualifying requirement of 33%.
• Universal Registration Number: Introduced in 2025 on UPSC’s revamped application portal to streamline candidate registration and application processes.

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Sports – Daily Current Affairs October 01

2. Who scored the fastest double century in ODI history during India’s second ODI against West Indies in Guwahati?
A) Rohit Sharma
B) Virat Kohli
C) Shai Hope
D) Shubman Gill
E) Ruturaj Gaikwad
Answer: D) Shubman Gill.

Event and Location:

• Event: Shubman Gill scored the fastest double century in ODI history and remained unbeaten on 223 as India chased 406 to defeat West Indies by eight wickets.
• Location: Guwahati, India.
• Date: 30 September 2026.

Mandates and Objectives:

• Mandates: India successfully chased West Indies’ total of 405 for seven in the second ODI of the three-match series, with Gill leading the chase through a record-breaking double century.
• Objectives: India aimed to overhaul a 406-run target and strengthen its position in the three-match ODI series through a high-scoring successful chase.

Important Terms Explained:

• One-Day International (ODI): A limited-overs international cricket format in which each team generally receives a maximum of 50 overs to bat.
• Double Century: A batting score of 200 or more runs by an individual player in a single innings.
• Successful Chase: A match situation in which the team batting second surpasses the target set by the opposition and wins the match.
• Opening Partnership: The runs scored together by the two opening batters before the first wicket falls.
• Run Rate: The average number of runs scored by a team per over during an innings.

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3. Who won the silver medal for India in the men’s skiff event at the Asian Games 2026?
A) Sanjeev Raj and Ajay Bhaskar
B) Farokh Tarapore and Zarir Karanjia
C) Manu Francis and Prince Noble
D) Vishnu Saravanan and Nethra Kumanan
E) Varun Thakkar and KC Ganapathy
Answer: C) Manu Francis and Prince Noble.

Event and Location:

• Event: Manu Francis and Prince Noble won the silver medal for India in the men’s skiff event at the Asian Games 2026, taking India’s overall medal tally to 62.
• Location: Asian Games 2026.
• Date: 1 October 2026.

Mandates and Objectives:

• Mandates: The Indian sailing pair competed in the men’s skiff 49er class and finished second with 23 points to secure India’s first sailing medal at the Asian Games 2026.
• Objectives: Their performance contributed to India’s medal tally and strengthened the country’s record in sailing at the Asian Games.

Important Terms Explained:

• 49er Class: It is a high-performance two-person skiff sailing event in which teams compete using lightweight boats designed for speed and agility.
• Men’s Skiff: It is a sailing event featuring two sailors racing in a high-speed skiff boat over a series of races.
• Asian Games: It is a major multi-sport event involving athletes from Asian countries and is held under the framework of the Olympic Council of Asia.
• Medal Tally: It refers to the total number of gold, silver and bronze medals won by a country during a multi-sport competition.
• Asian Sailing Championships: It is a continental sailing competition in which sailors from Asian countries compete across different boat classes and events.

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4. Who became the second-fastest batter to reach 12,000 ODI runs in terms of innings?
A) Sachin Tendulkar
B) Ricky Ponting
C) Rohit Sharma
D) Kumar Sangakkara
E) Chris Gayle
Answer: C) Rohit Sharma.

Event and Location:

• Event: Rohit Sharma crossed 12,000 ODI runs and became the first batter to hit 200 ODI sixes in a single country during India’s second ODI against West Indies.
• Location: Barsapara Cricket Stadium, Guwahati, India.
• Date: 30 September 2026.

Mandates and Objectives:

• Mandates: Rohit reached 12,000 ODI runs in his 282nd innings, scored his 35th ODI century and crossed 200 ODI sixes in India while contributing to a 255-run opening partnership with Shubman Gill.
• Objectives: The performance strengthened Rohit’s position among leading ODI batters and established new milestones in aggregate runs, six-hitting and opening partnerships.

Important Terms Explained:

• One-Day International (ODI): It is a limited-overs international cricket format in which each team generally bats for a maximum of 50 overs.
• 12,000-Run Club: It refers to the group of batters who have accumulated at least 12,000 runs in ODI cricket, with Rohit becoming the third Indian after Sachin Tendulkar and Virat Kohli to reach the mark.
• Opening Partnership: It is the partnership between the two opening batters from the start of an innings until the first wicket falls.
• ODI Century: It refers to an individual score of 100 or more runs in a single ODI innings.
• Six: It is awarded when a batter hits the ball over the boundary without it touching the ground, scoring six runs.

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Business and Economy – Daily Current Affairs October 01

5. What was the HSBC India Manufacturing PMI in September 2026?
A) 50.8
B) 52.8
C) 53.6
D) 55.1
E) 57.4
Answer: D) 55.1.

Event and Location:

• Event: India’s manufacturing PMI rose to a seven-month high of 55.1 in September 2026 from 52.8 in August, supported by stronger domestic and export demand.
• Location: India.
• Date: September 2026.

Mandates and Objectives:

• Mandates: The manufacturing PMI survey tracks changes in business conditions through indicators such as new orders, output, employment, suppliers’ delivery times, inventories and prices.
• Objectives: The index aims to provide a timely measure of manufacturing-sector activity and indicate whether business conditions are expanding or contracting.

Important Terms Explained:

• Purchasing Managers’ Index (PMI): It is a survey-based indicator that measures changes in business activity across sectors such as manufacturing and services, with readings above 50 indicating expansion and below 50 indicating contraction.
• Seasonally Adjusted Index: It is a statistical measure adjusted to remove regular seasonal patterns so that month-to-month changes in business activity can be compared more clearly.
• New Orders: These refer to fresh purchase orders received by manufacturers and are used as an indicator of current and future demand.
• Export Orders: These are orders received from overseas markets and help indicate the strength of external demand for manufactured goods.
• Input Costs: These are expenses incurred by manufacturers on raw materials and other production inputs, and their movement provides an indication of cost pressures.

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Appointments – Daily Current Affairs October 01

6. Who assumed charge as Secretary of the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MoEFCC) in October 2026?
A) Narendra Bhooshan
B) Rajesh Kumar Singh
C) Ajay Seth
D) Sanjay Kumar
E) Vivek Joshi
Answer: A) Narendra Bhooshan.

Event and Location:

• Event: Narendra Bhooshan, a 1992-batch IAS officer of the Uttar Pradesh cadre, assumed charge as Secretary of the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change.
• Location: India.
• Date: 1 October 2026.

Mandates and Objectives:

• Mandates: As Secretary of MoEFCC, Narendra Bhooshan will serve in a senior administrative role dealing with environmental governance, forests, climate-related policy and implementation within the Government of India.
• Objectives: His appointment brings more than three decades of administrative experience across energy, infrastructure, agriculture, industry, urban development, finance and land-resource management to the ministry.

Important Terms Explained:

• Indian Administrative Service (IAS): It is one of India’s All India Services whose officers hold key administrative positions in the Union and State governments.
• Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MoEFCC): It is the Union ministry responsible for policies and programmes concerning environmental protection, forests, biodiversity and climate-related matters.
• Department of Land Resources (DoLR): It functions under the Ministry of Rural Development and deals with areas such as land-resource management, watershed development and related rural development initiatives.
• Watershed Development: It refers to the planned management and conservation of land and water resources within a drainage area to improve soil health, water availability and ecological resilience.
• Geospatial Governance: It refers to the use of location-based data, mapping technologies and spatial information for planning, administration and resource management.

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7. Who has received RBI approval to become the MD & CEO of Kotak Mahindra Bank from 1 January 2027?
A) Ashok Vaswani
B) Anup Kumar Saha
C) Uday Kotak
D) Sandeep Bakhshi
E) Rajiv Anand
Answer: B) Anup Kumar Saha.

Event and Location:

• Event: The Reserve Bank of India approved the appointment of Anup Kumar Saha as Managing Director and Chief Executive Officer of Kotak Mahindra Bank for a three-year tenure beginning on 1 January 2027.
• Location: India.
• Date: 30 September 2026.

Mandates and Objectives:

• Mandates: Anup Kumar Saha will take charge as MD & CEO of Kotak Mahindra Bank from 1 January 2027 after completion of required formalities, including approval of the bank’s members, and will succeed Ashok Vaswani.
• Objectives: The appointment is intended to provide leadership continuity at Kotak Mahindra Bank while drawing on Saha’s experience in retail banking, consumer finance, digitalisation, marketing and data analytics.

Important Terms Explained:

• Reserve Bank of India (RBI): It is India’s central bank and regulates commercial banks, including approval of certain top management appointments under applicable banking laws.
• Section 35B of the Banking Regulation Act, 1949: It provides for regulatory approval in relation to appointments, reappointments and certain terms concerning the chairman, managing director and specified senior managerial positions in banking companies.
• Whole-time Director: It refers to a board-level executive who is actively involved in the day-to-day management and operations of a company.
• Retail Banking: It refers to banking services provided primarily to individual customers, including deposits, loans, cards and other personal financial products.
• Consumer Finance: It refers to financial services and credit products provided to individuals for purchasing goods, services or meeting personal financing needs.

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Awards – Daily Current Affairs October 01

8. Who was announced as the recipient of the Vishisht Gujarat Garima Award for courage during a Flydubai flight emergency?
A) Smit Machchhar
B) Bhupendra Patel
C) Ashok Vaswani
D) Harsh Kumar Jain
E) Narendra Bhooshan
Answer: A) Smit Machchhar.

Event and Location:

• Event: Gujarat Chief Minister Bhupendra Patel announced that Flydubai Captain Smit Machchhar would receive the Vishisht Gujarat Garima Award for courage shown during a mid-air emergency on a Dubai-Tel Aviv flight.
• Location: Gujarat, India, with the emergency landing reported at Tabuk, Saudi Arabia.
• Date: 1 October 2026.

Mandates and Objectives:

• Mandates: The Gujarat government announced state recognition and a reported ₹25 lakh reward for Captain Smit Machchhar after he helped bring the aircraft to a safe emergency landing despite sustaining serious injuries.
• Objectives: The recognition aims to honour bravery, professional commitment and decisive action displayed during an aviation emergency.

Important Terms Explained:

• Vishisht Gujarat Garima Award: It is the state recognition announced by the Gujarat government for Captain Smit Machchhar in acknowledgment of his courage during the flight emergency.
• Emergency Landing: It refers to an unscheduled landing carried out when an aircraft faces a serious safety or operational issue requiring immediate action.
• Flydubai Flight FZ1073: It was the flight identified as operating from Dubai to Tel Aviv when the reported mid-air emergency occurred.
• Cockpit: It is the section of an aircraft from which pilots operate and control the flight.
• Airlift: It refers to transporting a person by aircraft, often for urgent medical or logistical reasons, as was reported in Machchhar’s transfer to Dubai.

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Defence – Daily Current Affairs October 01

9. Where was the second edition of ASEAN-India Maritime Exercise (AIME-2026) inaugurated?
A) Manila
B) Subic Bay
C) Jakarta
D) Singapore
E) Port Blair
Answer: B) Subic Bay.

Event and Location:

• Event: The second edition of ASEAN-India Maritime Exercise AIME-2026 began with participation from INS Sahyadri, INS Kulish and maritime forces of ASEAN member states.
• Location: Subic Bay, Philippines.
• Date: 28 September 2026.

Mandates and Objectives:

• Mandates: AIME-2026 includes a Harbour Phase involving professional, operational, cultural and community activities, followed by a Sea Phase featuring coordinated maritime exercises and operational serials.
• Objectives: The exercise aims to strengthen mutual understanding, professional cooperation, operational coordination and interoperability between the Indian Navy and participating ASEAN maritime forces.

Important Terms Explained:

• INS Sahyadri: It is a Shivalik-class stealth guided-missile frigate of the Indian Navy designed for a range of maritime and surface-combat operations.
• INS Kulish: It is a Kora-class guided-missile corvette of the Indian Navy capable of undertaking maritime combat and operational missions.
• Act East Policy: It is India’s policy framework aimed at strengthening economic, strategic and cultural engagement with Southeast Asian countries and the wider Indo-Pacific region.
• MAHASAGAR: It stands for Mutual and Holistic Advancement for Security and Growth Across Regions and reflects India’s vision for cooperative maritime security and regional growth.
• Interoperability: It refers to the ability of military or maritime forces from different countries to operate together effectively through common procedures, coordination and communication.

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International Affairs – Daily Current Affairs October 01

10. What minimum marriage age has California set under Assembly Bill 1267 (AB 1267)?
A) 16 years
B) 17 years
C) 18 years
D) 19 years
E) 21 years
Answer: C) 18 years.

Event and Location:

• Event: California approved Assembly Bill 1267 to prohibit child marriage by setting the minimum age for marriage and domestic partnership at 18 years without exceptions.
• Location: California, United States.
• Date: 30 September 2026.

Mandates and Objectives:

• Mandates: AB 1267 removes earlier provisions that allowed minors to marry with parental consent or judicial approval and bars anyone below 18 from obtaining a marriage licence or registering a domestic partnership from 1 January 2027.
• Objectives: The law aims to create a uniform minimum marriage age, eliminate exceptions for minors and strengthen legal protection related to consent, coercion and child welfare.

Important Terms Explained:

• Assembly Bill 1267 (AB 1267): It is the California law that establishes 18 years as the minimum age for marriage and domestic partnership without exceptions.
• Statutory Minimum Marriage Age: It is the minimum age fixed by law below which a person cannot legally marry.
• Domestic Partnership: It is a legally recognised relationship between two individuals that can provide certain rights and responsibilities similar to marriage.
• Parental Consent: It refers to permission granted by a parent or guardian, which had previously been one route allowing minors to marry under California law.
• Judicial Approval: It refers to permission granted by a court, which had also previously allowed minors to marry in certain circumstances.

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Schemes – Daily Current Affairs October 01

11. What is the total approved outlay for Green Energy Corridor Phase-III (GEC-III)?
A) ₹1,36,378 crore
B) ₹1,50,000 crore
C) ₹1,75,000 crore
D) ₹1,86,405 crore
E) ₹2,00,000 crore
Answer: D) ₹1,86,405 crore.

Event and Location:

• Event: The Union Cabinet approved Green Energy Corridor Phase-III with a total outlay of ₹1,86,405 crore to strengthen intra-state transmission infrastructure and evacuate up to 135 GW of renewable energy.
• Location: India.
• Date: 1 October 2026.

Mandates and Objectives:

• Mandates: GEC-III will strengthen the Intra-State Transmission System, facilitate evacuation of up to 135 GW of renewable energy, deploy 50 GWh of Battery Energy Storage Systems, and support both greenfield transmission construction and brownfield network upgrades.
• Objectives: The project aims to improve renewable energy integration, reduce transmission constraints, manage intermittency, enhance grid flexibility, meet non-solar-period demand, and support India’s expansion of non-fossil-fuel power capacity.

Important Terms Explained:

• Intra-State Transmission System (InSTS): It refers to the electricity transmission network operating within a State or Union Territory that carries power from generating stations to different parts of the regional grid.
• Battery Energy Storage System (BESS): It stores electricity generated during periods of high renewable-energy production and supplies it when generation is low, helping address intermittency, congestion, peak-hour requirements and grid flexibility.
• Central Financial Support (CFS): It is financial assistance provided by the Central Government to lower intra-state transmission costs and reduce the cost burden of renewable energy integration, with ₹54,082 crore allocated under GEC-III.
• Tariff Based Competitive Bidding (TBCB): It is a competitive method under which transmission service providers bid for the right to develop and operate greenfield transmission projects.
• Cost Plus Basis (CPB): It is the implementation method specified for brownfield transmission-network upgrades, where approved project costs are recovered along with the permitted return.
• State Transmission Utilities (STUs): These are the state-level transmission entities that will act as implementing agencies for the intra-state components of GEC-III.

Tabular Summary:

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National Affairs – Daily Current Affairs October 01

12. What is the approved cost of the Intelligent Traffic Management System (ITMS) project for Delhi?
A) ₹1,289.52 crore
B) ₹1,489.52 crore
C) ₹1,589.52 crore
D) ₹1,789.52 crore
E) ₹1,989.52 crore
Answer: D) ₹1,789.52 crore.

Event and Location:

• Event: The Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs approved the Intelligent Traffic Management System project for Delhi at a cost of ₹1,789.52 crore to improve traffic regulation, enforcement and real-time information systems.
• Location: Delhi, India.
• Date: 1 October 2026.

Mandates and Objectives:

• Mandates: The project will cover 42 identified traffic corridors with adaptive traffic signals, automated violation detection, incident management, real-time traveller information, emergency vehicle priority and integrated command-and-control facilities.
• Objectives: The system aims to optimize the use of Delhi’s existing road network, reduce congestion, improve traffic flow, strengthen enforcement, facilitate emergency movement and provide timely traffic information to commuters.

Important Terms Explained:

• Adaptive Traffic Control System (ATCS): It is a technology-based signal management system that dynamically changes traffic-signal timings according to real-time traffic conditions to reduce unnecessary stops and improve traffic flow.
• Variable Message Signs (VMS): These are digital display boards used to provide commuters with real-time information on congestion, diversions, parking and road conditions.
• Traffic Command and Control Centre: It is an integrated facility that coordinates traffic regulation, enforcement, information dissemination, incident response, data management and system monitoring.
• Automated Traffic Violations Detection System: It uses cameras, sensors and AI-based analytics to identify violations such as speeding, signal jumping, wrong-way driving, helmet and seatbelt violations, illegal parking and mobile-phone use while driving.
• Master System Integrator: It is the agency selected through competitive bidding to integrate and implement the different technological components of the ITMS project.
• Centre for Development of Advanced Computing (C-DAC): It will act as the Project Management Consultant and provide technical supervision and validation during implementation, operation and maintenance.

Tabular Summary:

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13. When did the Bankers’ Books Evidence Act, 2026 come into force?
A) 13 August 2026
B) 10 September 2026
C) 1 October 2026
D) 15 October 2026
E) 1 January 2027
Answer: C) 1 October 2026.

Event and Location:

• Event: The Bankers’ Books Evidence Act, 2026 came into force, replacing the Bankers’ Books Evidence Act, 1891 and creating a technology-neutral framework for physical, electronic, digital, virtual and cloud-based banking records.
• Location: India.
• Date: 1 October 2026.

Mandates and Objectives:

• Mandates: The Act lays down rules for certification and authentication of banking records used as evidence in court proceedings, arbitration, investigations, inquiries and other legally recognised proceedings.
• Objectives: The legislation aims to modernise evidentiary rules for banking records, recognise digital forms of record-keeping, protect record integrity and align banking evidence law with contemporary technology without changing the basic certification framework.

Important Terms Explained:

• Bankers’ Books: These include ledgers, day books, cash books, account books and other records ordinarily maintained during banking operations, including records stored electronically, digitally, virtually or at off-site locations.
• Technology-Neutral Framework: It refers to a legal framework that applies irrespective of whether banking records are maintained physically, electronically, digitally, virtually or through cloud technology.
• Certified Copy: It is an authenticated reproduction or derivation of an original banking record that satisfies prescribed conditions relating to accuracy, integrity and protection against tampering.
• Special Cause: It refers to circumstances in which a court may require production of banking records or appearance of a bank officer, such as doubts over authenticity, interrupted record-making processes or non-compliance with an earlier court order.
• Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023: It is one of the procedural laws under which inquiries involving collection of evidence may fall within the scope of the new banking-record framework.

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