Daily Current Affairs September 26–27

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September 26–27 | Daily Current Affairs 2026

Important Days – Daily Current Affairs September 26–27

1. What is the theme of World Tourism Day 2026?
A) Tourism and Green Investments
B) Tourism and Sustainable Transformation
C) Digital Agenda and Artificial Intelligence to Redesign Tourism
D) Rethinking Tourism
E) Tourism for Inclusive Growth
Answer: C) Digital Agenda and Artificial Intelligence to Redesign Tourism.

Event and Location:

• Event: World Tourism Day 2026 is observed with the theme “Digital Agenda and Artificial Intelligence to Redesign Tourism”, highlighting the growing role of digital technologies and AI in transforming tourism.
• Location: Global celebration in El Salvador.
• Date: September 27, 2026.

Mandates and Objectives:

• Mandates: World Tourism Day highlights tourism’s economic, social and cultural contribution, while the 2026 observance focuses on digital technologies and artificial intelligence, alongside initiatives supporting sustainable tourism and improved visitor experiences.
• Objectives: The observance aims to promote technology-driven tourism development, improve travel planning and visitor services, strengthen destination management and highlight tourism’s contribution to sustainable development.

Important Terms Explained:

• UN Tourism: It is the international body associated with World Tourism Day and was formerly known as the United Nations World Tourism Organization.
• Incredible India Digital Platform (IIDP): It is a revamped tourism platform using an AI-based tool to personalise visitor experiences and provide information on destinations, weather, essential services and registered tourism service providers.
• NIDHI+: The National Integrated Database of Hospitality Industry is a digital platform for registration, recognition and classification of tourism and hospitality service providers.
• Swadesh Darshan 2.0: It follows a destination-centric and tourist-centric approach focused on responsible and sustainable tourism, improved visitor experiences and destination infrastructure.
• PRASHAD: Pilgrimage Rejuvenation and Spiritual, Heritage Augmentation Drive is an initiative for improving tourism infrastructure and facilities at identified pilgrimage and heritage destinations.
• e-Visa: India’s electronic visa programme, launched in 2014, facilitates international travel through digital visa processing and was available to citizens of 172 countries through 88 identified ports as stated in the 2026 government backgrounder.

Tabular Summary:

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2. On which date was the Council of Scientific and Industrial Research (CSIR) established?
A) September 26, 1940
B) September 26, 1942
C) August 15, 1947
D) January 26, 1950
E) September 26, 1952
Answer: B) September 26, 1942.

Event and Location:

• Event: CSIR Foundation Day 2026 marks 85 years of the Council of Scientific and Industrial Research, which was established to promote scientific and industrial research in India.
• Location: India, with CSIR headquarters at Anusandhan Bhawan, New Delhi.
• Date: September 26, 2026.

Mandates and Objectives:

• Mandates: CSIR operates a nationwide research and development network of 37 national laboratories and institutes working across aerospace, chemicals, biotechnology, healthcare, environment, ocean science, earth science, materials, metallurgy, food, petroleum and engineering.
• Objectives: CSIR aims to advance scientific and industrial research, develop technologies addressing national and industrial requirements, promote innovation and facilitate the application of scientific research for economic and technological development.

Important Terms Explained:

• Board of Scientific and Industrial Research (BSIR): It was established in 1940 as an early institutional initiative for organised scientific and industrial research, with Shanti Swaroop Bhatnagar serving as its Director.
• Research and Development (R&D): It refers to systematic scientific and technological activities undertaken to generate knowledge, develop new technologies and improve existing products, processes and applications.
• Department of Scientific and Industrial Research (DSIR): It is the department associated with the promotion of industrial research and technological development, with the CSIR Director General also serving as Secretary of DSIR.
• Traditional Knowledge Digital Library (TKDL): It is an initiative associated with CSIR’s technology and knowledge activities involving the documentation of traditional knowledge in digital form.

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Sports – Daily Current Affairs September 26–27

3. How many women’s kabaddi gold medals has India won in Asian Games history after its 2026 victory?
A) Two
B) Three
C) Four
D) Five
E) Six
Answer: C) Four.

Event and Location:

• Event: India’s women’s kabaddi team defeated Iran in the Asian Games 2026 final to defend its title and secure its fourth Asian Games gold medal.
• Location: Tokai Citizen Gymnasium, Tokai, Aichi Prefecture, Japan.
• Date: September 26, 2026.

Mandates and Objectives:

• Mandates: India entered the women’s kabaddi final after topping Group A and defeating Nepal 48-24 in the semifinal, before overcoming Iran in a closely contested gold-medal match.
• Objectives: India aimed to defend the women’s kabaddi title won at Hangzhou 2022 and add a fourth gold medal to its Asian Games record in the event.

Important Terms Explained:

• Asian Games: A multi-sport competition involving athletes from across Asia, with women’s kabaddi included as a medal event from the 2010 edition.
• Kabaddi: A team contact sport in which players score through successful raids and defensive tackles against the opposing team.
• Raid: An attacking move in kabaddi in which a raider enters the opposing half and attempts to score points before returning safely to their own half.
• Group Stage: The preliminary phase of a tournament in which teams compete within assigned groups to qualify for the knockout rounds.

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4. Which medal did India win in the women’s 50m rifle 3 positions team event at the Asian Games 2026?
A) Gold
B) Silver
C) Bronze
D) No medal
E) Joint bronze
Answer: B) Silver.

Event and Location:

• Event: India won the silver medal in the women’s 50m rifle 3 positions team event at the Asian Games 2026 with a combined qualification score of 1763 points.
• Location: Japan.
• Date: September 26, 2026.

Mandates and Objectives:

• Mandates: Tilottama Sen, Vidarsa Vinod Kochalumkal and Ashi Chouksey represented India in the women’s 50m rifle 3 positions team event, where their qualification scores were combined to determine the team result.
• Objectives: The Indian shooters competed across the kneeling, prone and standing positions to secure a team medal, while their individual qualification performances also determined eligibility for the eight-shooter individual final.

Important Terms Explained:

• 50m Rifle 3 Positions: It is a shooting event conducted over 50 metres in which competitors fire from three positions: kneeling, prone and standing.
• Qualification Round: Each competitor fires 20 shots in each of the three positions for a total of 60 shots, with qualification scores determining team standings and individual finalists.
• Team Event: The scores of all three shooters representing a country are combined to determine the country’s overall team score and medal position.
• ISSF: The International Shooting Sport Federation governs international shooting competitions and the rules for events such as the 50m rifle 3 positions.

Tabular Summary:

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5. Who won the silver medal in the men’s marathon at the Asian Games 2026 with a national-record time of 2:11:37?
A) Kartik Karkera
B) Ichitaka Yamashita
C) Sawan Barwal
D) Chhota Singh
E) Surat Singh Mathur
Answer: C) Sawan Barwal.

Event and Location:

• Event: India’s Sawan Barwal won the men’s marathon silver medal at the Asian Games 2026 with a national-record time of 2:11:37, ending India’s 44-year wait for an Asian Games marathon medal.
• Location: Nagoya, Japan.
• Date: September 26, 2026.

Mandates and Objectives:

• Mandates: Sawan Barwal represented India in the men’s marathon and finished second behind Japan’s Ichitaka Yamashita, while fellow Indian runner Kartik Karkera finished 17th.
• Objectives: Barwal competed to secure a podium finish for India in the Asian Games marathon and improved his own national record by 21 seconds with his 2:11:37 finish.

Important Terms Explained:

• Marathon: It is a long-distance road-running event in athletics in which competitors cover the standard marathon distance.
• National Record: It refers to the best officially recognised performance achieved by an athlete representing a particular country in an event.
• World Athletics: It is the international governing body for athletics and maintains official records and performance data for athletics events.

Tabular Summary:

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6. Which country did India defeat in the men’s kabaddi final to win gold at the Asian Games 2026?
A) Japan
B) South Korea
C) Pakistan
D) Iran
E) Bangladesh
Answer: D) Iran.

Event and Location:

• Event: India defeated Iran 40-34 in the men’s kabaddi final at the Asian Games 2026 to retain the gold medal won at the previous Asian Games.
• Location: Aichi-Nagoya, Japan.
• Date: September 26, 2026.

Mandates and Objectives:

• Mandates: India faced Iran in the men’s kabaddi gold-medal match and secured a 40-34 victory after using strong defensive play, including super tackles and an all out, to establish its advantage in the second half.
• Objectives: India aimed to retain the Asian Games men’s kabaddi title it had reclaimed at Hangzhou 2022 and continue its strong record in the continental competition.

Important Terms Explained:

• Kabaddi: It is a team contact sport in which players score points through raids and defensive tackles against members of the opposing team.
• Super Tackle: It is a defensive scoring situation in kabaddi where a team with three or fewer defenders successfully tackles the opposing raider and earns additional points.
• All Out: It occurs when all players of one team are declared out, resulting in additional points for the opposing team before the eliminated players are revived.
• Asian Games: It is a continental multi-sport competition in which men’s kabaddi has been a medal event since 1990, after appearing as an exhibition event in 1982.

Tabular Summary:

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7. How many medals did India win on Day 7 of the Asian Games 2026?
A) Five
B) Six
C) Seven
D) Eight
E) Nine
Answer: C) Seven.

Event and Location:

• Event: India won seven medals on Day 7 of the Asian Games 2026, comprising two gold, three silver and two bronze medals, taking its overall tally to 30 medals.
• Location: Aichi-Nagoya, Japan.
• Date: September 26, 2026.

Mandates and Objectives:

• Mandates: India’s Day 7 medal haul included gold medals from the men’s and women’s kabaddi teams, silver medals from Tajinderpal Singh Toor, Sawan Barwal and the women’s 50m rifle 3 positions team, along with two bronze medals.
• Objectives: Indian athletes competed across team and individual disciplines to increase the country’s medal tally, with Day 7 raising the overall count to four gold, 12 silver and 14 bronze medals.

Important Terms Explained:

• Medal Tally: It refers to the total number of gold, silver and bronze medals won by a country during a multi-sport competition.
• 50m Rifle 3 Positions: It is a shooting event in which competitors shoot from kneeling, prone and standing positions over a distance of 50 metres.
• Shot Put: It is an athletics field event in which competitors attempt to throw a heavy spherical shot as far as possible from a designated throwing area.
• Decathlon: It is a combined athletics competition consisting of ten track-and-field events, with athletes accumulating points based on their performances.

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Ranking – Daily Current Affairs September 26–27

8. What is Delhi’s rank in the Oxford Economics Global Cities Index 2026?
A) 116th
B) 268th
C) 311th
D) 330th
E) 381st
Answer: B) 268th.

Event and Location:

• Event: Delhi ranked 268th among 1,000 cities in the Oxford Economics Global Cities Index 2026, making it the highest-ranked Indian city, while New York secured the top global position.
• Location: Global, covering 1,000 of the world’s largest cities.
• Date: September 26, 2026.

Mandates and Objectives:

• Mandates: Oxford Economics evaluated 1,000 cities across five dimensions comprising Economics, Human Capital, Quality of Life, Environment and Governance to determine their overall positions.
• Objectives: The index aims to provide a multidimensional assessment of major global cities by combining socioeconomic indicators, standardised data and Oxford Economics city forecasts into category and overall scores.

Important Terms Explained:

• Oxford Economics: It is a global economic research and forecasting firm that developed the Global Cities Index.
• Human Capital: It evaluates factors such as education, skills of the labour force and a city’s ability to attract talent.
• Quality of Life: It measures aspects related to residents’ well-being and access to amenities.
• Governance: It assesses factors related to institutional strength and civic efficiency.
• Environment: It evaluates environmental quality and sustainability within a city.

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Banking and Finance – Daily Current Affairs September 26–27

9. How much does the Central Government plan to borrow through dated securities in H2FY27?
A) ₹4.36 trillion
B) ₹7.86 trillion
C) ₹8.14 trillion
D) ₹11.73 trillion
E) ₹17.2 trillion
Answer: B) ₹7.86 trillion.

Event and Location:

• Event: The Central Government plans to borrow ₹7.86 trillion through dated securities in H2FY27, taking projected gross market borrowing for FY27 to about ₹16 trillion.
• Location: India.
• Date: September 26, 2026.

Mandates and Objectives:

• Mandates: The government will conduct 23 weekly auctions during H2FY27, with borrowing of ₹33,000 crore to ₹36,000 crore per auction, while also raising ₹15,000 crore through sovereign green bonds and increasing the share of longer-tenor securities.
• Objectives: The borrowing programme aims to finance the fiscal deficit, manage government funding requirements, increase the weighted average maturity of debt, and reduce the need to roll over maturing obligations.

Important Terms Explained:

• Gross Market Borrowing: It refers to the total amount borrowed by the government through issuance of government securities during a financial year before deducting repayments of maturing debt.
• Net Market Borrowing: It refers to borrowing remaining after accounting for repayments of maturing debt and is a major source of financing the fiscal deficit.
• Sovereign Green Bonds: These are government debt instruments used to raise funds for eligible projects having environmental or climate-related objectives.
• Weighted Average Maturity (WAM): It indicates the average maturity period of outstanding debt, with a longer WAM helping reduce the frequency of debt rollover.
• Treasury Bills (T-Bills): These are short-term government securities that mature within one year and are issued at a discount and redeemed at par value.
• Ways and Means Advances (WMA): These are temporary advances provided by the Reserve Bank of India to the government to manage short-term mismatches between receipts and payments.
• Debt-to-GDP Ratio: It compares the government’s total debt with the country’s GDP and is used as an indicator of public debt sustainability.

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Appointments – Daily Current Affairs September 26–27

10. Who has been appointed as the new Chairperson of the Central Board of Secondary Education (CBSE)?
A) Rahul Singh
B) S Radha Chauhan
C) Mandeep K Bhandari
D) Lokhande Prashant Sitaram
E) Sanjay Kumar
Answer: C) Mandeep K Bhandari.

Event and Location:

• Event: Mandeep K Bhandari, a 2001-batch IAS officer of the AGMUT cadre, has been appointed as the new Chairperson of CBSE in the rank and pay of Additional Secretary to the Union Government.
• Location: India.
• Date: September 25, 2026.

Mandates and Objectives:

• Mandates: The Appointments Committee of the Cabinet approved the appointment of Mandeep K Bhandari as CBSE Chairperson, with the post temporarily upgraded to the rank and pay of Additional Secretary to the Union Government.
• Objectives: The appointment places Bhandari in charge of CBSE’s administrative and academic functions, including examinations, school affiliation, curriculum-related activities, training and implementation of educational reforms.

Important Terms Explained:

• Appointments Committee of the Cabinet (ACC): It is the Cabinet committee responsible for approving appointments to specified senior positions in the Government of India.
• AGMUT Cadre: The Arunachal Pradesh-Goa-Mizoram and Union Territories cadre is a joint IAS cadre covering Arunachal Pradesh, Goa, Mizoram and Union Territories.
• On-Screen Marking (OSM) System: It refers to a digital evaluation system used for assessing candidates’ answer papers electronically.
• Additional Secretary: It is a senior administrative rank in the Union Government, and Bhandari has been appointed CBSE Chairperson with the rank and pay attached to this level.

Tabular Summary:

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11. Who voluntarily retired as Managing Director of Life Insurance Corporation of India (LIC) with effect from September 24, 2026?
A) Siddhartha Mohanty
B) Dinesh Pant
C) M Nagaraju
D) Debasish Panda
E) Sat Pal Bhanoo
Answer: B) Dinesh Pant.

Event and Location:

• Event: The Central Government approved the premature termination of Dinesh Pant’s appointment as LIC Managing Director following his voluntary retirement, ahead of his originally scheduled tenure ending in May 2027.
• Location: India.
• Date: September 24, 2026.

Mandates and Objectives:

• Mandates: The Department of Financial Services under the Ministry of Finance notified the premature termination of Dinesh Pant’s appointment following his voluntary retirement, with the decision taking effect from September 24, 2026.
• Objectives: The decision formally ended Pant’s tenure as LIC Managing Director and Key Managerial Personnel following his voluntary retirement and his appointment as Whole-Time Member (Actuary) at IRDAI.

Important Terms Explained:

• Life Insurance Corporation of India (LIC): It is the life insurance corporation where Dinesh Pant served as Managing Director after previously holding actuarial and executive positions.
• Key Managerial Personnel (KMP): It refers to senior personnel holding key management responsibilities in an organisation, and Pant ceased to be LIC’s Managing Director and KMP following his retirement.
• Appointed Actuary: It is a specialised actuarial position responsible for functions involving insurance risks, liabilities, valuations and related actuarial matters, a role previously held by Dinesh Pant at LIC.
• Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority of India (IRDAI): It is the insurance regulatory authority where Dinesh Pant was appointed Whole-Time Member (Actuary) in June 2026.
• Whole-Time Member (Actuary): It is the regulatory position at IRDAI to which Pant was appointed for five years or until attaining 65 years of age, whichever is earlier.

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National Affairs – Daily Current Affairs September 26–27

12. Who signed the UN Convention against Cybercrime on behalf of India on September 25, 2026?
A) Amit Shah
B) S Jaishankar
C) Ajit Doval
D) Piyush Goyal
E) Ashwini Vaishnaw
Answer: B) S Jaishankar.

Event and Location:

• Event: External Affairs Minister S Jaishankar signed the UN Convention against Cybercrime on behalf of India to strengthen international cooperation against cybercrime and facilitate the sharing of electronic evidence.
• Location: United Nations Headquarters, New York.
• Date: September 25, 2026.

Mandates and Objectives:

• Mandates: The convention establishes a common international framework covering cybercrime investigations, electronic evidence, international cooperation, extradition, recovery of proceeds of crime and a 24/7 cooperation network among states.
• Objectives: The convention aims to strengthen cross-border cooperation in preventing and combating crimes committed through information and communications technology systems and facilitate the collection and sharing of electronic evidence related to serious crimes.

Important Terms Explained:

• UN Convention against Cybercrime: It is the first comprehensive UN treaty on cybercrime and provides an international framework for combating certain crimes committed through information and communications technology systems and sharing electronic evidence of serious crimes.
• Electronic Evidence: It refers to information or evidence stored or transmitted in digital form that can be collected, exchanged and used in investigations and proceedings involving serious crimes.
• 24/7 Network: It is a cooperation mechanism established under the convention to enable states to initiate rapid international assistance in cybercrime and electronic-evidence matters.
• Ratification: It is the formal process through which a state confirms its consent to be legally bound by a treaty after signing it, subject to its domestic procedures.
• UNODC: The United Nations Office on Drugs and Crime served as the secretariat during nearly five years of negotiations on the convention.

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13. Which constitutional provision deals with the reconsideration of a State Bill reserved for the President and returned to the State Legislature?
A) Article 22
B) Article 123
C) Article 201
D) Article 254
E) Article 356
Answer: C) Article 201.

Event and Location:

• Event: President Droupadi Murmu returned the West Bengal Public Safety and Control of Anti-Social Activities Bill, 2026 for reconsideration over concerns about a possible overlap with central legislation dealing with preventive detention in narcotics-related cases.
• Location: West Bengal, India.
• Date: September 26, 2026.

Mandates and Objectives:

• Mandates: The proposed law seeks to address anti-social activities, habitual offenders, organised crime, extortion, illegal mining and activities affecting public order, while providing for preventive detention of up to one year and certain restrictions on entry into specified areas.
• Objectives: The reconsideration seeks to address the potential legal overlap between the State Bill’s provisions covering offences under the NDPS Act and the preventive detention framework under the central PITNDPS Act, 1988.

Important Terms Explained:

• Article 201: It deals with Bills reserved by a Governor for consideration of the President and provides for the procedure when the President withholds assent or directs the return of a non-Money Bill for reconsideration.
• Article 254: It deals with repugnancy or inconsistency between laws made by Parliament and State Legislatures on matters contained in the Concurrent List.
• Preventive Detention: It refers to detention intended to prevent a person from engaging in specified activities considered prejudicial to public order or other protected interests, rather than punishment following an offence.
• NDPS Act, 1985: The Narcotic Drugs and Psychotropic Substances Act, 1985 deals with offences and regulatory provisions concerning narcotic drugs and psychotropic substances.
• PITNDPS Act, 1988: The Prevention of Illicit Traffic in Narcotic Drugs and Psychotropic Substances Act, 1988 is a Central law concerning preventive detention in relation to illicit trafficking in narcotic drugs and psychotropic substances.

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14. How many talukas in Maharashtra were declared drought-affected under Trigger-1 of the Drought Management Code, 2016 during the 2026 Kharif season?
A) 235
B) 245
C) 255
D) 265
E) 275
Answer: D) 265.

Event and Location:

• Event: The Maharashtra government declared drought in 265 of the state’s 358 talukas under Trigger-1 criteria and announced a 12-point relief package for affected farmers, farm workers and rural households.
• Location: Maharashtra, India.
• Date: September 26, 2026.

Mandates and Objectives:

• Mandates: District Collectors have been directed to conduct field-level crop-loss panchnamas using geotagged photographs with GPS coordinates, while the state will implement 12 relief measures covering agricultural loans, electricity charges, drinking water, food grains, fodder and water conservation.
• Objectives: The measures aim to assess crop losses caused by insufficient monsoon rainfall during the 2026 Kharif season and provide financial, agricultural and essential-service support to drought-affected communities.

Important Terms Explained:

• Drought Management Code, 2016: It provides the framework used for identifying drought conditions through indicators related to rainfall, agriculture, vegetation and water availability and for initiating assessment and relief measures.
• Trigger-1: It refers to the drought-identification criteria under which the administration initiates necessary assessment and relief measures based on specified drought indicators.
• Panchnama: It is a field-level assessment process used to record crop damage, with the 2026 exercise requiring geotagged photographs and GPS coordinates of affected agricultural land.
• Kharif Season: It refers to the agricultural cropping season associated with the monsoon period, during which insufficient rainfall in 2026 contributed to drought conditions in Maharashtra.
• Direct Benefit Transfer (DBT): It is the mechanism through which approved relief payments are transferred directly to eligible beneficiaries after completion of the required processing and e-KYC.

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15. For how long has the Centre extended Armed Forces (Special Powers) Act, 1958 (AFSPA) in specified areas of Manipur, Nagaland and Arunachal Pradesh from October 1, 2026?
A) Three months
B) Four months
C) Six months
D) Nine months
E) One year
Answer: C) Six months.

Event and Location:

• Event: The Central Government extended AFSPA in specified areas of Manipur, Nagaland and Arunachal Pradesh for another six months after reviewing the law-and-order situation.
• Location: Specified areas of Manipur, Nagaland and Arunachal Pradesh, India.
• Date: October 1, 2026 to March 31, 2027.

Mandates and Objectives:

• Mandates: The Ministry of Home Affairs renewed the declaration of specified areas as disturbed areas under AFSPA, continuing its application in notified parts of Manipur, nine districts and specified police-station areas of Nagaland, and three districts along with specified areas of Namsai district in Arunachal Pradesh.
• Objectives: The extension aims to continue the deployment and specified powers of the armed forces in notified disturbed areas for restoring and maintaining order, based on the Centre’s review of the prevailing law-and-order situation.

Important Terms Explained:

• Disturbed Area: Under Section 3 of AFSPA, an appropriate government may declare an area disturbed when it considers the use of armed forces necessary for restoring and maintaining order.
• Section 3 of AFSPA: It provides for the declaration of an area as a disturbed area when the conditions specified under the Act warrant the use of armed forces.
• Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA): It is the Union Ministry that issued the notifications extending the disturbed-area declarations in the specified areas of the three northeastern states.
• Special Powers: AFSPA provides authorised armed-forces personnel specified powers in disturbed areas, including arrest and search without warrant under specified circumstances and the use of force subject to the provisions of the Act.

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16. Which four ports were notified as mega ports under the Indian Ports Act, 2025 in September 2026?
A) Chennai, Kochi, Mumbai and Visakhapatnam
B) Deendayal, Jawaharlal Nehru, Paradip and Mundra
C) Mormugao, Paradip, Chennai and Kolkata
D) Mundra, Mumbai, Kochi and Tuticorin
E) Deendayal, Chennai, Mormugao and Visakhapatnam
Answer: B) Deendayal, Jawaharlal Nehru, Paradip and Mundra.

Event and Location:

• Event: The Centre notified Deendayal Port, Jawaharlal Nehru Port, Paradip Port and Mundra Port as mega ports under Section 73 of the Indian Ports Act, 2025.
• Location: Gujarat, Maharashtra and Odisha, India.
• Date: September 25, 2026.

Mandates and Objectives:

• Mandates: The Ministry of Ports, Shipping and Waterways notified the four ports as mega ports through Gazette Notification S.O. 5303(E) under Section 73 of the Indian Ports Act, 2025, based on prescribed cargo-throughput criteria.
• Objectives: The mega-port framework aims to classify ports meeting specified cargo-handling thresholds while allowing them to retain their original status as major ports or ports other than major ports.

Important Terms Explained:

• Mega Port: It is a classification under Section 73 of the Indian Ports Act, 2025 for eligible ports meeting the cargo-throughput criteria prescribed by the Central Government.
• Cargo Throughput: It refers to cargo handled during a financial year, including EXIM and coastal cargo across bulk, break-bulk, liquid, dry and containerised categories.
• Twenty-Foot Equivalent Unit (TEU): It is a standard measurement used for containerised cargo capacity, with the mega-port threshold for container ports set at 7.5 million TEUs.
• Section 73: It empowers the Central Government to prescribe criteria and notify eligible major ports and other ports as mega ports without altering their underlying classification.
• Indian Ports Act, 2025: It is the legislation governing the current legal framework for Indian ports, with Section 73 specifically dealing with the notification of mega ports.

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