Daily Current Affairs July 25 & 26

Dear Champions, as you all know that a lot of competitive exams have been notified consequently. Candidates have to prepare themselves according to the level of competition and expectation of the Recruitment board. Regarding that one of the most important topic is Daily Current Affairs July 25 & 26. Current Affairs in the form of contemporary events of national & international play a crucial role in almost every competitive exams like Banking, Insurance, SSC, UPSC, TNPSC, Railway etc.

Current affairs are the most dynamic yet scoring among all sections and need to be prepared from the right source. Here, we cafunsta team, providing Daily GK Updates, Current Affairs Questions, and Monthly current affairs pdf.

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July 25 & 26 | Daily Current Affairs 2026

Important Days – Daily Current Affairs July 25 & 26

1. Which military operation was launched by India during the Kargil War of 1999?
A) Operation Meghdoot
B) Operation Vijay
C) Operation Cactus
D) Operation Trident
E) Operation Rakshak
Answer: B) Operation Vijay.

Event and Location:

  • Event: India will observe the 27th Kargil Vijay Diwas to honour the soldiers who fought in the 1999 Kargil War and secured victory under Operation Vijay.
  • Location: Kargil and Dras sectors in Ladakh, along the Line of Control.
  • Date: 26 July 2026.

Mandates and Objectives:

  • Mandates: Commemorative events will include the Shaurya Vijay Yatra, Tiger Hill Expedition 2026, Leh-Dras motorcycle tour, military equipment displays, and tributes by soldiers, veterans, students, and local citizens.
  • Objectives: The observance aims to honour the sacrifices of Indian soldiers, commemorate the recapture of strategic mountain positions, and promote awareness of India’s military history and national security.

Important Terms Explained:

  • Operation Vijay: The Indian military campaign launched in 1999 to evict Pakistani troops and infiltrators from occupied positions in the Kargil sector without crossing the Line of Control.
  • Operation Safed Sagar: The Indian Air Force’s aerial campaign conducted in support of the Indian Army during the Kargil War.
  • Line of Control: The military control line separating Indian-administered and Pakistan-administered areas of Jammu and Kashmir.
  • Param Vir Chakra: India’s highest wartime gallantry award, presented for exceptional bravery in the presence of the enemy.
  • High-Altitude Warfare: Military operations conducted in mountainous regions where extreme cold, steep terrain, and low oxygen levels create severe operational challenges.

Tabular Summary:

Parameter Details
Observance India will observe the 27th Kargil Vijay Diwas on 26 July 2026.
Historical event The day commemorates India’s victory in the Kargil War of 1999.
Military campaign Indian forces launched Operation Vijay to recapture occupied mountain positions.
Strategic locations Major victories were achieved at Tololing, Tiger Hill, Point 4875, Batalik, Mushkoh Valley, and Kaksar.
Key battle dates Tololing was recaptured on 13 June 1999, while Tiger Hill was regained on 4 July 1999.
Military coordination The Indian Army operated with support from the Indian Air Force and the Indian Navy.
Gallantry recognition The conflict resulted in the award of four Param Vir Chakras and nine Maha Vir Chakras.
2026 activities Planned events include motorcycle expeditions, military displays, patriotic programmes, and tributes to Kargil heroes.

Sports – Daily Current Affairs July 25 & 26

2. Which country was leading the Commonwealth Games 2026 medal tally with 13 gold medals?
A) Australia
B) England
C) Nigeria
D) Scotland
E) Canada
Answer: A) Australia.

Event and Location:

  • Event: Australia emerged as the early leader in the Commonwealth Games 2026 medal standings, while India opened its medal account through boxer Lovlina Borgohain.
  • Location: Glasgow, Scotland.
  • Date: 25 July 2026, with the Games scheduled from 23 July to 2 August 2026.

Mandates and Objectives:

  • Mandates: The 23rd Commonwealth Games feature athletes from 74 Commonwealth Games Associations competing in 215 medal events across 10 sports.
  • Objectives: The Games aim to promote sporting excellence and competition among Commonwealth nations through conventional and Para sport disciplines.

Important Terms Explained:

  • Commonwealth Games Association: A national or territorial organisation responsible for selecting and managing its team at the Commonwealth Games.
  • Bye: A competition arrangement under which an athlete advances to the next round without contesting the scheduled earlier round.
  • Split Decision: A result in combat sports where the judges are divided, with a majority awarding victory to one competitor.

Tabular Summary:

Parameter Details
Event name The 23rd Commonwealth Games.
Host city Glasgow, Scotland.
Competition dates 23 July to 2 August 2026.
Participating associations Athletes from 74 Commonwealth Games Associations are participating.
Sports and medal events The Games comprise 10 sports and 215 medal events.
Medal table leader Australia led with 13 gold, 5 silver and 8 bronze medals.
India’s medal achievement Lovlina Borgohain assured India of a medal in the women’s 75 kg boxing category.
Upcoming Indian contest Lovlina Borgohain was scheduled to face Tarona Taafaki of Tuvalu in the semifinal on 31 July 2026.

3. What total weight did Mirabai Chanu lift to win the women’s 48 kg gold medal at the Commonwealth Games 2026?
A) 180 kg
B) 185 kg
C) 190 kg
D) 195 kg
E) 200 kg
Answer: C) 190 kg.

Event and Location:

  • Event: Mirabai Chanu won her third consecutive Commonwealth Games gold medal after lifting a combined total of 190 kg in the women’s 48 kg weightlifting category.
  • Location: Glasgow, Scotland.
  • Date: 26 July 2026.

Mandates and Objectives:

  • Mandates: Mirabai Chanu recorded an 85 kg lift in the snatch and a 105 kg lift in the clean and jerk to secure the women’s 48 kg title.
  • Objectives: The performance aimed to retain her Commonwealth Games title, strengthen India’s medal campaign, and continue the country’s success in international weightlifting.

Important Terms Explained:

  • Snatch: A weightlifting movement in which an athlete lifts the barbell from the floor to above the head in one continuous motion.
  • Clean and Jerk: A two-stage weightlifting movement in which the barbell is first lifted to the shoulders and then raised above the head.
  • Total Lift: The combined weight of an athlete’s best successful snatch and clean-and-jerk attempts.
  • Commonwealth Games Record: The best officially recognised performance achieved in a particular event during the Commonwealth Games.

Tabular Summary:

Parameter Details
Gold medallist Mirabai Chanu of India won the women’s 48 kg weightlifting title.
Total lift Mirabai Chanu recorded a combined lift of 190 kg.
Snatch performance She successfully lifted 82 kg before setting a record with an 85 kg lift.
Clean-and-jerk performance She secured the gold medal with a successful lift of 105 kg.
Silver medallist Ruth Asuquo Nyong of Nigeria finished second.
Bronze medallist Irene Jane Henry of Malaysia finished third.
Commonwealth Games milestone Mirabai Chanu won her third consecutive gold medal at the Games.
Career medal record She has won four Commonwealth Games medals, comprising three gold medals and one silver medal.

Business and Economy – Daily Current Affairs July 25 & 26

4. What is the estimated investment for HCLTech’s AI-optimised data centre and global technology centre in Odisha?
A) ₹5,000 crore
B) ₹8,000 crore
C) ₹10,000 crore
D) ₹12,000 crore
E) ₹15,000 crore
Answer: E) ₹15,000 crore.

Event and Location:

  • Event: HCLTech announced plans to establish its first AI-optimised data centre and a global technology centre with an estimated investment of ₹15,000 crore.
  • Location: Odisha Sovereign AI Park in Bhubaneswar, Odisha.
  • Date: 25 July 2026.

Mandates and Objectives:

  • Mandates: HCLTech will develop the facilities in partnership with Sarvam AI and the Government of Odisha, with operations expected to commence by 2028.
  • Objectives: The initiative aims to strengthen India’s sovereign AI ecosystem through secure indigenous computing infrastructure, reduce dependence on foreign platforms, support multilingual AI solutions, and generate approximately 5,000 jobs.

Important Terms Explained:

  • Odisha Sovereign AI Park: A proposed technology ecosystem in Bhubaneswar designed to support artificial intelligence research, high-performance computing, secure cloud services, and enterprise AI applications.
  • AI-Optimised Data Centre: A specialised facility equipped with computing systems designed to train, deploy, and operate artificial intelligence models efficiently.
  • High-Performance Computing: The use of powerful interconnected computer systems to process complex calculations and large datasets at very high speeds.
  • Digital Sovereignty: A country’s ability to control its digital infrastructure, data processing, technology platforms, and critical computing resources.

Tabular Summary:

Parameter Details
Main development HCLTech will establish its first AI-optimised data centre and a global technology centre in Odisha.
Project location The facilities will be developed at the Odisha Sovereign AI Park in Bhubaneswar.
Estimated investment The project involves an estimated investment of ₹15,000 crore.
Project partners HCLTech, Sarvam AI, and the Government of Odisha are collaborating on the initiative.
Expected operations The global technology centre is expected to begin operations by 2028.
Employment potential The development is expected to generate approximately 5,000 jobs.
Infrastructure features The facilities will provide high-performance computing, secure cloud services, AI training, and enterprise AI platforms.
Strategic significance The investment will support indigenous AI development, secure domestic data processing, and reduced reliance on foreign infrastructure.

Appointments – Daily Current Affairs July 25 & 26

5. Under which constitutional provision was Ravneet Singh Bittu’s resignation from the Union Council of Ministers accepted?
A) Article 74
B) Article 75(1)
C) Article 75(2)
D) Article 76
E) Article 78
Answer: C) Article 75(2).

Event and Location:

  • Event: Ravneet Singh Bittu resigned as Union Minister of State for Railways and Food Processing Industries after the completion of his Rajya Sabha tenure.
  • Location: India, with his future political activities focused on Punjab.
  • Date: 25 July 2026.

Mandates and Objectives:

  • Mandates: President Droupadi Murmu accepted Bittu’s resignation from the Union Council of Ministers on the advice of Prime Minister Narendra Modi, with immediate effect.
  • Objectives: Bittu stated that he intended to devote greater attention to Punjab politics ahead of the 2027 Punjab Assembly elections.

Important Terms Explained:

  • Article 75(2): A constitutional provision stating that Union ministers hold office during the pleasure of the President.
  • Union Council of Ministers: The body of ministers headed by the Prime Minister that aids and advises the President in governing the country.
  • Rajya Sabha: The Upper House of Parliament, representing the states and Union Territories of India.
  • Minister of State: A junior-ranking Union minister who may assist a Cabinet Minister or independently handle an assigned ministry.

Tabular Summary:

Parameter Details
Political leader Ravneet Singh Bittu.
Former ministerial portfolios Minister of State for Railways and Food Processing Industries.
Resignation status His resignation was accepted with immediate effect.
Accepting authority President Droupadi Murmu accepted the resignation on the Prime Minister’s advice.
Constitutional provision The resignation was accepted under Article 75(2) of the Constitution of India.
Rajya Sabha tenure His Rajya Sabha term concluded in June 2026.
Stated political plan He plans to concentrate on political activities in Punjab.
Electoral significance The development occurred ahead of the Punjab Assembly elections scheduled for 2027.

6. Why did Dharmendra Pradhan resign as Union Education Minister?
A) Cabinet reshuffle
B) Health concerns
C) NEET-UG controversy
D) Appointment abroad
E) State election campaign
Answer: C) NEET-UG controversy.

Event and Location:

  • Event: Dharmendra Pradhan resigned as Union Education Minister amid protests and allegations of irregularities in the NEET-UG examination.
  • Location: India.
  • Date: 25 July 2026.

Mandates and Objectives:

  • Mandates: The resignation followed sustained demands from students and organisations seeking accountability, transparency, and fairness in the conduct of competitive examinations.
  • Objectives: Dharmendra Pradhan stated that the decision was intended to protect students’ interests, preserve confidence in the education system, and allow aspirants to concentrate on their studies.

Important Terms Explained:

  • NEET-UG: The National Eligibility-cum-Entrance Test for Undergraduate courses is a national-level entrance examination for admission to undergraduate medical programmes in India.
  • Computer-Based Test: An examination conducted digitally through computers instead of conventional pen-and-paper answer sheets.
  • Grievance Redressal Mechanism: A formal system for receiving, examining, and resolving complaints raised by students or other affected individuals.
  • Examination Malpractice: Any dishonest or unlawful activity that compromises the fairness, confidentiality, or integrity of an examination.

Tabular Summary:

Parameter Details
Main development Dharmendra Pradhan resigned as Union Education Minister amid the NEET-UG controversy.
Primary reason Protests and allegations of irregularities raised concerns over examination transparency and fairness.
Affected examination The controversy centred mainly on the NEET-UG examination.
Stated purpose Dharmendra Pradhan said the decision was taken to safeguard students’ interests and retain their confidence.
Student concerns Aspirants demanded accountability and assurance that examination irregularities would not affect their preparation.
Government response Authorities focused on investigations, examination-related corrective measures, and reforms to restore trust.
Proposed reform Future improvements may include wider use of computer-based testing and stronger digital monitoring.
Broader significance The development highlighted the need for transparent examinations and faster grievance resolution.

7. Who was given additional charge of the Ministry of Education following Dharmendra Pradhan’s resignation?
A) Amit Shah
B) Pralhad Joshi
C) Ashwini Vaishnaw
D) Piyush Goyal
E) Kiren Rijiju
Answer: B) Pralhad Joshi.

Event and Location:

  • Event: Pralhad Joshi was given additional charge of the Ministry of Education after President Droupadi Murmu accepted Dharmendra Pradhan’s resignation from the Union Council of Ministers.
  • Location: India.
  • Date: 25 July 2026.

Mandates and Objectives:

  • Mandates: Pralhad Joshi will administer the Ministry of Education in addition to his existing portfolios of Consumer Affairs, Food and Public Distribution, and New and Renewable Energy until further orders.
  • Objectives: The allocation aims to ensure administrative continuity and uninterrupted functioning of the Ministry of Education following Dharmendra Pradhan’s resignation.

Important Terms Explained:

  • Additional Charge: A temporary administrative arrangement under which a minister handles another ministry along with existing responsibilities.
  • Article 75(2): A constitutional provision stating that Union ministers hold office during the pleasure of the President.
  • Union Council of Ministers: The body headed by the Prime Minister that aids and advises the President in administering the Union Government.
  • National Education Policy 2020: India’s education policy framework designed to reform school and higher education through multidisciplinary learning, flexibility, skill development, and improved access.

Tabular Summary:

Parameter Details
Main development Pralhad Joshi received additional charge of the Ministry of Education.
Predecessor Dharmendra Pradhan resigned from the Union Council of Ministers.
Accepting authority President Droupadi Murmu accepted the resignation on the advice of Prime Minister Narendra Modi.
Constitutional provision The resignation was accepted under Article 75(2) of the Constitution of India.
Existing portfolios Pralhad Joshi holds Consumer Affairs, Food and Public Distribution, and New and Renewable Energy.
Effective period The additional responsibility took effect immediately and will continue until further orders.
Political background Pralhad Joshi is a Bharatiya Janata Party leader and Member of Parliament from Dharwad, Karnataka.
Previous portfolios He served as Minister of Parliamentary Affairs, Coal, and Mines between 2019 and 2024.

8. Who was appointed Director of the Financial Intelligence Unit-India during the joint secretary-level bureaucratic reshuffle?
A) Avanish Kumar Mishra
B) Satya Pal Kumar
C) Abhijit Phukon
D) Sudhir Shyam
E) Kuldip Narayan
Answer: B) Satya Pal Kumar.

Event and Location:

  • Event: The Union Government appointed Satya Pal Kumar, a 2005-batch Indian Revenue Service officer, as Director of the Financial Intelligence Unit-India during a major bureaucratic reshuffle.
  • Location: India.
  • Date: 25 July 2026.

Mandates and Objectives:

  • Mandates: The Appointments Committee of the Cabinet approved the postings of approximately 20 senior officers across various Union ministries and departments at the Joint Secretary and equivalent levels.
  • Objectives: The appointments aim to strengthen administrative leadership, improve departmental functioning, and enhance financial intelligence capabilities against money laundering, terror financing, financial fraud, and suspicious transactions.

Important Terms Explained:

  • Indian Revenue Service: A Group A civil service whose officers administer direct and indirect tax systems and may serve in senior financial and administrative positions.
  • Appointments Committee of the Cabinet: A Cabinet committee that approves appointments to senior positions in the Government of India.
  • Suspicious Financial Transaction: A transaction whose nature, value, pattern, or circumstances may indicate money laundering, terror financing, fraud, or another financial offence.
  • Money Laundering: The process of concealing the illegal origin of money and making it appear to have been obtained from legitimate sources.

Tabular Summary:

Parameter Details
Main appointment Satya Pal Kumar was appointed Director of the Financial Intelligence Unit-India.
Officer details Satya Pal Kumar is a 2005-batch Indian Revenue Service officer from the Income Tax cadre.
Approving authority The Appointments Committee of the Cabinet approved the appointment.
Reshuffle scale Approximately 20 senior officers received new postings across Union ministries and departments.
FIU responsibility The unit receives, processes, analyses, and disseminates information related to suspicious financial transactions.
Key enforcement areas The agency supports action against money laundering, terror financing, financial fraud, and illicit transactions.
Other appointments Avanish Kumar Mishra, Abhijit Phukon, Sudhir Shyam, Kuldip Narayan, V. Lalithalakshmi, and Sajeesh Kumar N. received new assignments.
Administrative significance The reshuffle strengthened leadership at Joint Secretary and equivalent levels across major government institutions.

Science and Technology – Daily Current Affairs July 25 & 26

9. Which agency directed GitHub to remove repositories associated with Bitchat?
A) National Investigation Agency
B) Indian Cybercrime Coordination Centre
C) Computer Emergency Response Team
D) Central Bureau of Investigation
E) National Informatics Centre
Answer: B) Indian Cybercrime Coordination Centre.

Event and Location:

  • Event: India directed GitHub to disable access to three repositories associated with the Bitchat messaging application over national security and criminal misuse concerns.
  • Location: India.
  • Date: 23 July 2026.

Mandates and Objectives:

  • Mandates: The Indian Cybercrime Coordination Centre, operating under the Ministry of Home Affairs, instructed GitHub to remove the identified repositories under the Information Technology Act, 2000 and the Information Technology Rules, 2021.
  • Objectives: The directive aims to prevent the possible misuse of anonymous, decentralised communication technology by terrorist organisations, organised crime groups, cybercriminals, and individuals spreading misinformation during emergencies.

Important Terms Explained:

  • Bitchat: A free and open-source messaging application that enables encrypted peer-to-peer communication through Bluetooth without requiring internet access, mobile networks, registration, or a central server.
  • Bluetooth Low Energy Mesh Network: A communication system in which nearby Bluetooth-enabled devices relay messages between one another, extending communication beyond the direct Bluetooth range.
  • Section 79(3)(b) of the Information Technology Act, 2000: A provision requiring an online intermediary to remove or disable access to unlawful content after receiving valid notification from the government or an authorised agency.
  • Rule 3(1)(d) of the Information Technology Rules, 2021: A provision requiring online intermediaries to remove or restrict access to specified information after receiving a lawful order.
  • Decentralised Messaging: A communication model that transfers messages without relying on a single central server for routing or storage.

Tabular Summary:

Parameter Details
Government directive GitHub was instructed to disable access to three repositories connected with Bitchat.
Issuing authority The Indian Cybercrime Coordination Centre issued the instruction under the Ministry of Home Affairs.
Order date The removal order was issued on 23 July 2026.
Technology used Bitchat uses Bluetooth Low Energy mesh networking for peer-to-peer messaging.
Internet requirement Communication can continue without Wi-Fi, mobile data, or conventional internet servers.
Legal provisions The directive cited Section 79(3)(b) of the Information Technology Act, 2000 and Rule 3(1)(d) of the Information Technology Rules, 2021.
Security concern Anonymous and serverless communication may make illegal activities difficult to monitor, trace, and attribute.
Repositories affected Three repositories, including the Android application repository, were reportedly covered by the directive.

International Affairs – Daily Current Affairs July 25 & 26

10. Which country requested assistance through the European Union Civil Protection Mechanism to combat wildfires?
A) Spain
B) France
C) Portugal
D) Italy
E) Greece
Answer: B) France.

Event and Location:

  • Event: Spain declared a national emergency as severe wildfires spread across parts of Europe, while France requested European Union assistance.
  • Location: Central Spain, areas west of Madrid, Avila, Cap Ferret, and Biscarrosse in France.
  • Date: 25 July 2026.

Mandates and Objectives:

  • Mandates: Spain activated national-level coordination for firefighting and evacuation operations, while France sought additional resources through the European Union Civil Protection Mechanism.
  • Objectives: The emergency measures aim to protect residents and tourists, control rapidly spreading fires, coordinate rescue operations, and reduce damage to homes, forests, transport routes, and tourism infrastructure.

Important Terms Explained:

  • National Emergency: A formal declaration that enables a central government to coordinate resources, agencies, and emergency operations during a major crisis.
  • European Union Civil Protection Mechanism: A cooperation framework through which European countries can request and provide disaster-response assistance, including firefighting teams, aircraft, and emergency equipment.
  • Wildfire: An uncontrolled fire that spreads rapidly through forests, grasslands, or other vegetation, especially during hot, dry, and windy conditions.
  • Climate Change: Long-term changes in temperature and weather patterns that can increase heatwaves, droughts, and the frequency or severity of wildfires.

Tabular Summary:

Parameter Details
Main development Spain declared a national emergency over wildfires, while France requested European Union assistance.
Affected regions in Spain Fires affected mountainous areas west of Madrid and the neighbouring province of Avila.
Evacuations in Spain More than 10,000 residents were evacuated from affected areas.
Major affected area in France Cap Ferret on the French Atlantic coast experienced severe wildfire conditions.
Evacuations in France Approximately 63,000 people were evacuated from Cap Ferret.
Damage in France Nearly 10,000 hectares were burned, around 80 houses were damaged, and nearly 50 houses were destroyed.
Main contributing factors Extreme heat, prolonged dry weather, strong winds, dense vegetation, and climate change increased wildfire risks.
Strategic significance The crisis highlighted the need for disaster preparedness, forest management, and cross-border emergency cooperation.

11. Which country has India invited as a special guest to the BRICS Summit 2026?
A) Nepal
B) Sri Lanka
C) Bangladesh
D) Bhutan
E) Maldives
Answer: C) Bangladesh.

Event and Location:

  • Event: India invited Bangladesh to attend the BRICS Summit 2026 as a special guest while conducting key ministerial meetings under its BRICS Chairmanship.
  • Location: New Delhi, India.
  • Date: The summit is scheduled from 17 to 19 September 2026.

Mandates and Objectives:

  • Mandates: India will host the summit and organise ministerial meetings covering health cooperation, disaster risk reduction, economic cooperation, digital transformation, sustainable development, and climate resilience.
  • Objectives: India aims to strengthen regional partnerships, enhance cooperation among emerging economies, increase engagement with the Global South, and secure practical outcomes from the summit.

Important Terms Explained:

  • BRICS: An intergovernmental cooperation forum comprising major emerging economies that coordinates on economic, political, developmental, and global governance issues.
  • Global South: A broad term referring mainly to developing and emerging countries in Asia, Africa, Latin America, and other regions with shared development priorities.
  • Disaster Risk Reduction: A systematic approach to preventing new disaster risks, reducing existing risks, and improving preparedness and resilience.
  • Chairmanship: The responsibility of leading an international grouping for a specified period, including setting priorities, organising meetings, and coordinating its agenda.

Tabular Summary:

Parameter Details
Main development India invited Bangladesh to participate in the BRICS Summit 2026 as a special guest.
Host country India will host the summit under its BRICS Chairmanship.
Summit venue The summit will be held in New Delhi.
Summit dates The meeting is scheduled from 17 to 19 September 2026.
Invited representative Bangladesh Prime Minister Tarique Rahman was invited to attend the summit.
Chairmanship theme The theme is “Creating Resilience, Innovation, Collaboration and Sustainability”.
Ministerial focus areas Health cooperation, disaster risk management, digital transformation, climate resilience, and sustainable development are key areas.
Diplomatic significance The invitation seeks to strengthen India-Bangladesh relations and expand engagement with neighbouring countries and developing economies.

Schemes – Daily Current Affairs July 25 & 26

12. What is the total financial outlay approved for the BHAVYA Rasayan Scheme?
A) ₹2,030 crore
B) ₹2,500 crore
C) ₹3,000 crore
D) ₹3,030 crore
E) ₹3,500 crore
Answer: D) ₹3,030 crore.

Event and Location:

  • Event: The Union Cabinet approved the Bharat Audyogik Vikas Yojana Rasayan Scheme to establish three dedicated Chemical Parks with advanced common infrastructure.
  • Location: Three selected locations across India.
  • Date: 24 July 2026.

Mandates and Objectives:

  • Mandates: The scheme provides for the development of three integrated Chemical Parks by State Governments through a competitive Challenge Route during FY 2026 to FY 2031.
  • Objectives: It aims to reduce production and logistics costs, attract domestic and foreign investment, promote import substitution and exports, create employment, and strengthen India’s chemical manufacturing ecosystem.

Important Terms Explained:

  • Chemical Park: An integrated industrial area equipped with shared infrastructure and utilities for chemical manufacturing, processing, storage, waste management, and logistics.
  • Challenge Route: A competitive selection mechanism under which eligible states submit proposals and are assessed against prescribed criteria for project approval.
  • Plug-and-Play Infrastructure: Ready-to-use industrial facilities and utilities that allow companies to begin operations with lower initial investment and shorter setup time.
  • Common Effluent Treatment Plant: A centralised facility that collects and treats industrial wastewater from multiple units before its safe discharge or reuse.
  • Treatment, Storage and Disposal Facility: A specialised facility used for the safe treatment, temporary storage, and final disposal of hazardous industrial waste.

Tabular Summary:

Parameter Details
Scheme name Bharat Audyogik Vikas Yojana Rasayan Scheme.
Approval date The Union Cabinet approved the scheme on 24 July 2026.
Financial outlay The total allocation is ₹3,030 crore.
Number of parks Three dedicated Chemical Parks will be established across India.
Central assistance The Central Government may provide up to ₹1,000 crore for each park.
State contribution The concerned State Government must contribute at least ₹500 crore.
Land requirement Each proposed park requires at least 8 square kilometres, or about 2,000 acres, of contiguous and unencumbered land.
Implementation period The scheme will operate from FY 2026 to FY 2031.

13. Which category of beneficiaries can receive up to ₹3,000 under the Karnataka Prasoothi Araike Scheme?
A) General category women
B) SC and ST women
C) Government employees
D) Urban taxpayers
E) Self-employed women
Answer: B) SC and ST women.

Event and Location:

  • Event: The Karnataka Government’s Prasoothi Araike Scheme provides financial assistance for antenatal and postnatal care to eligible pregnant women.
  • Location: Karnataka.
  • Date: The scheme was launched in 2007.

Mandates and Objectives:

  • Mandates: The Department of Women and Child Development implements the scheme for pregnant women belonging to Below Poverty Line, Scheduled Caste, and Scheduled Tribe families.
  • Objectives: The scheme aims to improve maternal and newborn health, encourage institutional deliveries, promote antenatal care, and reduce the financial burden associated with pregnancy and childbirth.

Important Terms Explained:

  • Below Poverty Line: An economic classification used to identify households whose income and living conditions fall below the prescribed poverty threshold.
  • Janani Suraksha Yojana: A government maternity-benefit programme that promotes institutional deliveries among economically disadvantaged pregnant women through financial assistance.
  • Antenatal Care: Medical supervision and healthcare provided to a woman during pregnancy to monitor the health of the mother and the developing baby.
  • Institutional Delivery: Childbirth conducted at a recognised healthcare institution under the supervision of trained medical professionals.
  • ASHA Worker: An Accredited Social Health Activist who connects communities with public healthcare services and supports maternal and child health programmes.

Tabular Summary:

Parameter Details
Scheme name Karnataka Prasoothi Araike Scheme.
Launch year The scheme was launched in 2007.
Implementing department Department of Women and Child Development, Government of Karnataka.
Eligible beneficiaries Pregnant permanent residents of Karnataka belonging to BPL, SC, or ST families.
Financial assistance SC and ST women receive ₹3,000, while BPL women receive ₹2,000.
Payment structure Assistance is provided in two instalments during pregnancy and after delivery.
Second-instalment condition The beneficiary must deliver the child in a government hospital.
Application process Eligible women must approach an ASHA Worker or Auxiliary Nurse Midwife for registration and assistance.

14. What is the incentive payable for each surviving seedling in the third year?
A) ₹30
B) ₹35
C) ₹40
D) ₹45
E) ₹50
Answer: E) ₹50.

Event and Location:

  • Event: The Karnataka Krushi Aranya Protsaha Yojane provides financial incentives to farmers for planting and maintaining eligible tree saplings on privately owned agricultural land.
  • Location: Karnataka.
  • Date: The application is preferably submitted before the end of May, ahead of the monsoon season.

Mandates and Objectives:

  • Mandates: The Karnataka Forest Department supplies subsidised seedlings, verifies their survival through annual inspections, and provides incentives for each healthy sapling maintained for up to three years.
  • Objectives: The programme aims to increase tree cover, promote sustainable farming, improve biodiversity, strengthen climate resilience, conserve natural resources, and generate additional income for farmers.

Important Terms Explained:

  • Agroforestry: A land-use system that combines trees with crops or livestock on the same agricultural land to provide environmental and economic benefits.
  • Carbon Sequestration: The process through which trees and vegetation absorb and store carbon dioxide from the atmosphere.
  • Pahani or RTC: A Karnataka land record containing details about land ownership, cultivation, area, and related agricultural information.
  • Subsidised Seedling: A tree sapling supplied by a government nursery at a price lower than its normal market cost.

Tabular Summary:

Parameter Details
Implementing authority The Karnataka Forest Department implements the programme.
Eligible beneficiaries Permanent residents of Karnataka who own agricultural land may apply.
Plantation condition Tree saplings must be planted on land owned by the applicant.
Financial assistance Farmers receive ₹35 per surviving seedling in the first year, ₹40 in the second year, and ₹50 in the third year.
Seedling prices Subsidised seedlings are available at ₹1, ₹3, or ₹5 depending on the bag size.
Plantation capacity A farmer may plant approximately 400 eligible trees on one hectare of land.
Application process Applications must be submitted at the nearest Forest Range Office with the required documents and a nominal fee of ₹10.
Inspection mechanism Forest officials conduct annual inspections and release incentives according to the number of surviving seedlings.

National Affairs – Daily Current Affairs July 25 & 26

15. What is the proposed maximum fine for organised paper leak offences under the approved amendments?
A) ₹1 crore
B) ₹2 crore
C) ₹5 crore
D) ₹8 crore
E) ₹10 crore
Answer: E) ₹10 crore.

Event and Location:

  • Event: The Union Cabinet approved amendments to the Public Examinations (Prevention of Unfair Means) Act, 2024 to impose stricter penalties for examination paper leaks and organised cheating.
  • Location: India.
  • Date: 25 July 2026.

Mandates and Objectives:

  • Mandates: The proposed Anti-Paper Leak Bill raises the minimum imprisonment for paper leak offences from three years to five years, permits imprisonment of up to ten years, and increases the maximum fine to ₹10 crore.
  • Objectives: The amendments aim to deter organised examination fraud, protect students’ interests, ensure fair public examinations, accelerate trials, and restore confidence in the examination system.

Important Terms Explained:

  • Cognizable Offence: An offence in which the police may arrest an accused person without a warrant and begin an investigation without prior court approval.
  • Non-Bailable Offence: An offence in which bail is not available as an automatic right and must be granted by a court.
  • Organised Cheating: Coordinated examination fraud involving individuals, groups, institutions, or service providers for unlawful financial or other benefits.
  • Impersonation: The act of appearing for an examination or completing examination-related procedures while pretending to be another candidate.
  • Fast-Track Court: A specially designated court intended to hear and dispose of specified cases more quickly than the regular judicial process.

Tabular Summary:

Parameter Details
Cabinet decision The Union Cabinet approved stricter amendments to the law governing unfair practices in public examinations.
Minimum imprisonment The proposed minimum sentence for paper leak offences has been increased from three years to five years.
Maximum imprisonment Serious offences may attract imprisonment of up to ten years.
Maximum fine The proposed maximum monetary penalty is ₹10 crore.
Offences covered Paper leaks, impersonation, OMR manipulation, fake websites, false admit cards, and unauthorised access to confidential examination information are covered.
Legal status of offences Offences under the existing framework are cognizable and non-bailable.
Justice mechanism Special investigation procedures, fast-track courts, and speedy prosecution have been proposed.
Primary purpose The amendments seek to prevent organised cheating and safeguard the integrity of public examinations.

16. Who must grant permission before videos of court proceedings can be shared online?
A) Union Law Minister
B) Attorney General of India
C) Secretary General or Registrar General
D) Bar Council of India Chairperson
E) Solicitor General of India
Answer: C) Secretary General or Registrar General.

Event and Location:

  • Event: The Supreme Court of India temporarily prohibited the unauthorised uploading, sharing, saving, or circulation of videos from live-streamed court proceedings.
  • Location: Supreme Court of India and respective High Courts across India.
  • Date: 25 July 2026.

Mandates and Objectives:

  • Mandates: Video recordings of court proceedings cannot be distributed on social media or other platforms without prior permission from the Supreme Court Secretary General or the Registrar General of the respective High Court.
  • Objectives: The interim restriction aims to prevent misleading edits, sensational content, artificial intelligence-based manipulation, commercial misuse, and narratives that could weaken public confidence in the judiciary.

Important Terms Explained:

  • Interim Order: A temporary judicial direction that remains effective until the court conducts a detailed hearing or issues a final decision.
  • Artificial Intelligence-Generated Content: Images, audio, videos, or text created or altered using artificial intelligence tools, which may be used to produce misleading representations of judicial proceedings.
  • Public Interest Litigation: A legal petition filed to protect public rights or address an issue affecting society rather than only an individual petitioner.
  • Article 19(1)(a): A constitutional provision guaranteeing citizens the right to freedom of speech and expression, subject to reasonable restrictions imposed by law.
  • Indirect Advertising: Promotional activity conducted without direct advertisements, such as using courtroom footage on social media to market professional legal services.

Tabular Summary:

Parameter Details
Judicial direction Unauthorised uploading, saving, sharing, or circulation of courtroom videos has been temporarily restricted.
Bench composition The Bench was led by Chief Justice Surya Kant and included Justices Joymalya Bagchi and V. Mohana.
Permission authority Approval must be obtained from the Supreme Court Secretary General or the Registrar General of the concerned High Court.
Reason for restriction Edited clips, misleading narratives, sensational thumbnails, and manipulated content were cited as major concerns.
Origin of proceedings The matter arose from a Public Interest Litigation filed by journalist Harshita Grover.
AI-related concern Artificial intelligence tools may be used to distort judicial observations and spread false narratives.
Professional conduct issue The Court sought the Bar Council of India’s response regarding lawyers using courtroom footage to promote their services.
Possible future action Continued misuse may lead courts to reconsider public live-streaming or restrict access to authorised stakeholders.

17. At which session was Sarnath inscribed on the UNESCO World Heritage List?
A) 45th Session
B) 46th Session
C) 47th Session
D) 48th Session
E) 49th Session
Answer: D) 48th Session.

Event and Location:

  • Event: The Ancient Buddhist Site of Sarnath was inscribed on the UNESCO World Heritage List, becoming India’s 45th World Heritage Site.
  • Location: Sarnath, Uttar Pradesh, with the inscription approved in Busan, South Korea.
  • Date: 25 July 2026.

Mandates and Objectives:

  • Mandates: The World Heritage Committee approved Sarnath’s inscription during its 48th Session after recognising the site’s historical, religious, cultural, and archaeological importance.
  • Objectives: The inscription aims to strengthen the conservation of Sarnath, promote awareness of its Buddhist heritage, and preserve the site for present and future generations.

Important Terms Explained:

  • Outstanding Universal Value: Cultural or natural significance considered so exceptional that it is important to humanity as a whole.
  • Dhammacakkappavattana Sutta: The first sermon delivered by Gautama Buddha at Sarnath after attaining enlightenment, marking the beginning of the propagation of Buddhism.
  • Sangha: The organised community of Buddhist monks and followers established to preserve and spread the teachings of Buddhism.
  • Stupa: A Buddhist commemorative structure generally built to preserve sacred relics or mark an important religious event.

Tabular Summary:

Parameter Details
Main development The Ancient Buddhist Site of Sarnath was added to the UNESCO World Heritage List.
Inscription date The inscription was approved on 25 July 2026.
Committee session The decision was taken during the 48th Session of the World Heritage Committee.
Meeting location The session was held in Busan, South Korea.
India’s total sites Sarnath became India’s 45th UNESCO World Heritage Site.
Religious significance Gautama Buddha delivered his first sermon at Sarnath after attaining enlightenment.
Major monuments Important structures include the Dhamek Stupa, Dharmarajika Stupa, and Chaukhandi Stupa.
Global significance The inscription recognises Sarnath’s influence on Buddhist philosophy, pilgrimage, education, and culture for over two millennia.


Over All Review

Important Days

  • India will observe the 27th Kargil Vijay Diwas on 26 July 2026 to honour the soldiers who secured victory in the 1999 Kargil War.

Sports

  • The 23rd Commonwealth Games are being held in Glasgow from 23 July to 2 August 2026.
  • Mirabai Chanu won the women’s 48 kg gold medal at the Commonwealth Games 2026 with a total lift of 190 kg.

Business and Economy

  • HCLTech announced a ₹15,000 crore investment to establish an AI-optimised data centre and global technology centre in Bhubaneswar.

Appointments

  • Ravneet Singh Bittu’s Rajya Sabha tenure ended in June 2026.
  • Dharmendra Pradhan resigned as Union Education Minister following protests over alleged irregularities in the NEET-UG examination.
  • Pralhad Joshi was given additional charge of the Ministry of Education after Dharmendra Pradhan resigned from the Union Council of Ministers.
  • The Union Government appointed IRS officer Satya Pal Kumar as Director of the Financial Intelligence Unit-India during a major bureaucratic reshuffle.

Science and Technology

  • India directed GitHub to remove three Bitchat repositories over concerns related to national security and possible criminal misuse.

International Affairs

  • Spain declared a national emergency as destructive wildfires spread across the country, while France sought European Union assistance.
  • India invited Bangladesh as a special guest to the BRICS Summit 2026 scheduled to be held in New Delhi.

Schemes

  • Bharat Audyogik Vikas Yojana Rasayan Scheme was announced in the Union Budget 2026–27.
  • Karnataka Prasoothi Araike Scheme forms part of the Samagra Mathru Aarogya Palane programme.
  • The Karnataka Krushi Aranya Protsaha Yojane encourages farmers to plant and maintain eligible trees on agricultural land through three years of survival-based incentives.

National Affairs

  • The Union Cabinet approved tougher legal penalties for examination paper leaks, including imprisonment of up to ten years and a maximum fine of ₹10 crore.
  • The Supreme Court of India restricted the unauthorised circulation of live-streamed courtroom videos on social media and other online platforms.
  • The Ancient Buddhist Site of Sarnath was inscribed on the UNESCO World Heritage List as India’s 45th World Heritage Site.

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