Daily Current Affairs September 23

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September 23 | Daily Current Affairs 2026

Important Days – Daily Current Affairs September 23

1. What is the theme of the 11th Ayurveda Day 2026?
A) Ayurveda for One Health
B) Ayurveda for Global Wellness
C) Ayurveda for a Healthier Tomorrow
D) Ayurveda for Sustainable Living
E) Ayurveda for Healthy India
Answer: C) Ayurveda for a Healthier Tomorrow.

Event and Location:

• Event: India observed the 11th Ayurveda Day with the theme “Ayurveda for a Healthier Tomorrow” to highlight the expansion and integration of Ayurveda into modern healthcare.
• Location: India, with the WHO Global Traditional Medicine Centre located in Jamnagar, Gujarat.
• Date: September 23, 2026.

Mandates and Objectives:

• Mandates: The Ministry of Ayush is expanding Ayurveda through public healthcare infrastructure, research, education, insurance coverage, telemedicine, international partnerships, medicine standards and the National Ayush Mission.
• Objectives: The observance aims to promote Ayurveda as a traditional healthcare system while strengthening its scientific research, accessibility, standardisation and integration with contemporary healthcare services.

Important Terms Explained:

• National Ayush Mission (NAM): It is a government programme for strengthening Ayush healthcare services, infrastructure and related educational facilities across States and Union Territories.
• Ayushman Arogya Mandirs (Ayush): These facilities provide Ayush-based healthcare services, with 12,260 functional centres reported as of September 19, 2026, against a target of 12,500.
• eSanjeevani: It is the government’s telemedicine platform that includes Ayush OPD services for virtual consultations with Ayurveda and other Ayush practitioners.
• ICD-11: The World Health Organization’s International Classification of Diseases, 11th Revision enables standardised recording of diagnoses, including Ayurveda, Siddha and Unani diagnoses through its relevant framework.
• AYURGYAN Scheme: Launched in 2021-22, the scheme supports research and development activities in traditional medicine.
• SPARK: The Studentship Programme for Ayurveda Research Ken develops research aptitude among undergraduate Ayurveda students by supporting short-term research projects.
• Anuvadini AI: Developed by AICTE, this AI-based platform is being used with CCRAS to translate Ayurveda research, educational materials and medical journals into 13 regional Indian languages.

Tabular Summary:

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2. What is the theme of the International Day of Sign Languages 2026?
A) Sign Languages Unite Us
B) Sign Up for Sign Language Rights
C) Declaring Deaf People’s Human Rights
D) Sign Languages for Inclusive Societies
E) Building an Accessible World
Answer: C) Declaring Deaf People’s Human Rights.

Event and Location:

• Event: The International Day of Sign Languages 2026 was observed to promote the importance of sign languages and the human rights of Deaf people worldwide.
• Location: Worldwide, including India where Indian Sign Language is used by the Deaf community.
• Date: September 23, 2026.

Mandates and Objectives:

• Mandates: The observance promotes the recognition, respect and use of sign languages while supporting Deaf people’s rights to information, education, healthcare, public services, employment and social and political participation.
• Objectives: The 2026 observance aims to make human rights accessible to Deaf people by strengthening sign language access, inclusive education, public participation and recognition of Deaf culture and language.

Important Terms Explained:

• World Federation of the Deaf (WFD): It is an international organisation representing Deaf people globally and initiated the proposal that led to the establishment of the International Day of Sign Languages, with 2026 marking its 75th anniversary.
• International Week of Deaf People: It is an international observance associated with Deaf rights and culture, with the 2026 edition being observed from September 21 to 27 with themes covering accessibility, education, Deaf culture and participation.
• Convention on the Rights of Persons with Disabilities (CRPD): It is a United Nations convention that recognises and promotes the use of sign languages and supports measures facilitating their learning.
• Indian Sign Language (ISL): It is a visual-manual language used by the Deaf community in India and has its own vocabulary and grammatical system.
• Indian Sign Language Research & Training Centre (ISLRTC): It is the institution associated with research, development, teaching and training related to Indian Sign Language.

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Sports – Daily Current Affairs September 23

3. Which Indian weightlifter won the only silver medal for India on Day 4 of the Asian Games 2026?
A) Karnam Malleswari
B) Mirabai Chanu
C) Bindyarani Devi
D) Harjinder Kaur
E) Punam Yadav
Answer: B) Mirabai Chanu.

Event and Location:

• Event: India won four medals on Day 4 of the Asian Games 2026, comprising one silver and three bronze medals across weightlifting, shooting, badminton and soft tennis.
• Location: Aichi-Nagoya, Japan.
• Date: September 23, 2026.

Mandates and Objectives:

• Mandates: Indian athletes competed across multiple disciplines on Day 4, with Mirabai Chanu winning silver in women’s 49kg weightlifting and India securing bronze medals in women’s skeet team, men’s team badminton and men’s soft tennis.
• Objectives: India’s Day 4 campaign focused on securing medals and advancing athletes and teams across weightlifting, shooting, badminton, soft tennis, hockey, kabaddi, wushu, rowing and other sporting disciplines.

Important Terms Explained:

• Skeet Shooting: It is a shooting discipline in which athletes attempt to hit clay targets launched into the air from different directions, with India’s women’s team winning bronze with a combined score of 331.
• Snatch: It is a weightlifting movement in which an athlete lifts the barbell from the floor to overhead in one continuous motion, with Mirabai Chanu recording 87kg.
• Clean and Jerk: It is a two-stage weightlifting movement in which the barbell is first raised to the shoulders and then lifted overhead, with Chanu recording 111kg.
• Soft Tennis: It is a racket sport similar to conventional tennis but played with a softer rubber ball, with Jay Meena ensuring India’s first-ever Asian Games medal in the sport.

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4. How much total weight did Mirabai Chanu lift to win the silver medal in the women’s 49kg event at the Aichi-Nagoya Asian Games 2026?
A) 187kg
B) 190kg
C) 191kg
D) 195kg
E) 198kg
Answer: E) 198kg.

Event and Location:

• Event: Mirabai Chanu won the silver medal in the women’s 49kg weightlifting event at the Aichi-Nagoya Asian Games 2026, ending India’s 28-year wait for an Asian Games weightlifting medal.
• Location: Aichi-Nagoya, Japan.
• Date: September 23, 2026.

Mandates and Objectives:

• Mandates: Mirabai Chanu competed in the women’s 49kg weightlifting event and secured silver with a total lift of 198kg, comprising 87kg in snatch and 111kg in clean and jerk.
• Objectives: The performance gave Chanu her first Asian Games medal and delivered India its first weightlifting medal at the Asian Games since Karnam Malleswari’s silver medal in 1998.

Important Terms Explained:

• Snatch: It is a weightlifting discipline in which the athlete lifts the barbell from the floor to overhead in one continuous movement.
• Clean and Jerk: It is a weightlifting discipline performed in two stages, with the barbell first lifted to the shoulders and then raised overhead.
• Total Lift: It is the combined weight of an athlete’s best successful snatch and clean-and-jerk attempts, with Chanu recording a total of 198kg.
• Women’s 49kg Category: It is the bodyweight category in which Mirabai Chanu competed and won the silver medal at the Aichi-Nagoya Asian Games.

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Ranking – Daily Current Affairs September 23

5. To what level did Fitch Ratings raise India’s GDP growth forecast for FY27?
A) 6.4%
B) 6.5%
C) 6.7%
D) 6.9%
E) 7.2%
Answer: D) 6.9%.

Event and Location:

• Event: Fitch Ratings raised India’s FY27 GDP growth forecast to 6.9% from its earlier projection of 6.4%, citing stronger-than-expected economic activity.
• Location: India.
• Date: September 23, 2026.

Mandates and Objectives:

• Mandates: Fitch revised India’s FY27 GDP growth projection upward after the economy recorded 7.8% growth in the June quarter, supported by resilient demand and improving private investment prospects.
• Objectives: The revised forecast assesses India’s economic growth outlook while accounting for investment trends, credit growth, inflation, monsoon conditions, manufacturing and services activity, and external economic pressures.

Important Terms Explained:

• Gross Domestic Product (GDP): GDP measures the total monetary value of final goods and services produced within a country during a specified period and is a key indicator of economic performance.
• Private Investment: It refers to expenditure by private businesses and individuals on productive assets such as machinery, equipment, infrastructure and facilities, with Fitch expecting investment growth to exceed 10%.
• Non-food Credit: It refers to bank credit provided to sectors other than food procurement and is commonly used to assess credit demand across economic activities, with year-on-year growth reported at 19% in July 2026.
• Purchasing Managers’ Index (PMI): PMI is a survey-based indicator used to assess business activity and operating conditions in sectors such as manufacturing and services.
• Basis Point: A basis point is one-hundredth of a percentage point, meaning a 25-basis-point change is equivalent to 0.25 percentage point.
• Policy Rate: It is an interest rate used by a central bank as part of monetary policy to influence borrowing costs, liquidity, demand and inflation in the economy.

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6. Which institution ranked first in the latest official NIRF Sustainable Development Goals (SDG) Institutions Ranking?
A) Indian Agricultural Research Institute
B) Jamia Millia Islamia
C) IIT Delhi
D) IIT Madras
E) Banaras Hindu University
Answer: D) IIT Madras.

Event and Location:

• Event: The NIRF 2026 SDG ranking is awaited, while the NIRF 2025 SDG Institutions Ranking remains the latest official benchmark, with IIT Madras holding the first position.
• Location: India.
• Date: September 23, 2026.

Mandates and Objectives:

• Mandates: The National Institutional Ranking Framework (NIRF) SDG category evaluates higher education institutions on sustainability, environmental responsibility, social inclusivity, community engagement and research linked to the United Nations Sustainable Development Goals.
• Objectives: The SDG ranking aims to broaden institutional assessment beyond traditional academic indicators by measuring contributions to sustainable development through teaching, research, environmental practices and social engagement.

Important Terms Explained:

• Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs): These are 17 global goals adopted by the United Nations under the 2030 Agenda, covering areas such as poverty, health, education, equality, clean energy, climate action, sustainable communities and partnerships.
• SDG Institutions Ranking: Introduced under NIRF in 2025, this category assesses institutions on sustainability-related contributions including energy efficiency, water and waste management, SDG research, community engagement, inclusion and sustainable education.
• Environmental Accountability: It refers to an institution’s responsibility for managing its environmental impact through measures such as efficient energy use, water conservation, waste management and sustainable practices.
• Social Inclusivity: It refers to practices promoting diversity, equity, participation and access across different sections of society within education and institutional activities.

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Banking and Finance – Daily Current Affairs September 23

7. Under the revised Reserve Bank of India (RBI) framework, at what value will specified unquoted InvIT or REIT units be valued when the required NAV is not reported?
A) ₹1
B) ₹10
C) ₹50
D) ₹100
E) Zero
Answer: A) ₹1.

Event and Location:

• Event: RBI revised the classification and valuation framework for REIT and InvIT units held by All-India Financial Institutions, prescribing separate valuation methods for quoted and unquoted units.
• Location: India.
• Date: September 23, 2026.

Mandates and Objectives:

• Mandates: RBI added paragraphs 58A and 58B to Chapter VI of its investment portfolio directions, requiring quoted REIT and InvIT units to follow existing quoted-security valuation rules while specified unquoted units are valued using reported NAV or at ₹1 in prescribed circumstances.
• Objectives: The revised framework aims to remove ambiguity and establish clear and consistent valuation procedures for REIT and InvIT units held by financial institutions, particularly when market quotations or required NAV disclosures are unavailable.

Important Terms Explained:

• Infrastructure Investment Trust (InvIT): It is an investment vehicle that pools investors’ funds for investment in infrastructure assets, with its units covered by the revised RBI valuation framework.
• Real Estate Investment Trust (REIT): It is an investment vehicle that pools funds for investment in income-generating real estate assets, with RBI prescribing valuation rules for quoted and unquoted REIT units held by AIFIs.
• All-India Financial Institutions (AIFIs): These are financial institutions operating at the national level and are subject to RBI’s investment portfolio classification, valuation and operation directions.
• Net Asset Value (NAV): It represents the value of an investment vehicle’s assets after accounting for its liabilities and serves as the prescribed valuation basis for eligible unquoted REIT and InvIT units.
• Quoted Units: These are units for which market quotations are available and are valued according to RBI’s existing instructions applicable to quoted securities.
• Unquoted Units: These are units without available market quotations and are generally valued according to the NAV reported by the respective REIT or InvIT under the revised framework.

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Business and Economy – Daily Current Affairs September 23

8. To what level did S&P Global Ratings raise India’s real GDP growth forecast for FY27?
A) 6.4%
B) 6.6%
C) 6.7%
D) 6.9%
E) 7%
Answer: E) 7%.

Event and Location:

• Event: S&P Global Ratings raised India’s FY27 real GDP growth forecast to 7% from 6.6%, citing stronger-than-expected economic performance in the June quarter.
• Location: India.
• Date: September 23, 2026.

Mandates and Objectives:

• Mandates: S&P revised India’s FY27 growth forecast upward based on robust industrial activity, healthy consumer spending, goods exports and increased government investment, while projecting some moderation in the second half of the fiscal year.
• Objectives: The forecast assesses India’s economic outlook by considering consumption, investment, industrial activity, exports, inflation, interest rates, rainfall, crude oil prices and other domestic and external risks.

Important Terms Explained:

• Real Gross Domestic Product (GDP): It measures the value of final goods and services produced within an economy after adjusting for changes in prices, providing an inflation-adjusted measure of economic growth.
• GST Rationalization: It refers to changes intended to simplify or restructure Goods and Services Tax rates and provisions, which can influence consumption, prices and economic activity.
• Basis Point: It is one-hundredth of a percentage point, meaning a 25-basis-point change is equivalent to 0.25 percentage point.
• Policy Rate: It is an interest rate used by the Reserve Bank of India as a monetary policy tool to influence borrowing costs, demand and inflation in the economy.
• Consumer Inflation: It refers to the rate of increase in prices paid by consumers for goods and services, with S&P projecting it at 5.1% for FY27.

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Appointments – Daily Current Affairs September 23

9. Who is set to become Bangladesh’s new High Commissioner to India?
A) Riaz Hamidullah
B) Tarique Rahman
C) Asad Alam Siam
D) Muhammad Yunus
E) Masud Bin Momen
Answer: C) Asad Alam Siam.

Event and Location:

• Event: Asad Alam Siam, Bangladesh’s Foreign Secretary, is set to become the country’s new High Commissioner to India, succeeding Riaz Hamidullah.
• Location: Bangladesh High Commission, New Delhi, India.
• Date: September 23, 2026.

Mandates and Objectives:

• Mandates: Asad Alam Siam is set to head Bangladesh’s diplomatic mission in New Delhi as India and Bangladesh continue discussions over a possible bilateral visit by Bangladesh Prime Minister Tarique Rahman to India in November.
• Objectives: The appointment is intended to maintain high-level diplomatic engagement between Dhaka and New Delhi and manage bilateral relations during a period of continuing interaction between the two neighbouring countries.

Important Terms Explained:

• High Commissioner: A High Commissioner is the senior diplomatic representative exchanged between Commonwealth countries and performs functions broadly comparable to those of an ambassador.
• Bangladesh High Commission: It is Bangladesh’s principal diplomatic mission in India and represents the country in its official diplomatic engagement with the Indian government.
• Permanent Representative: It is a diplomat who represents a country at an international organisation, with outgoing High Commissioner Riaz Hamidullah set to serve as Bangladesh’s Permanent Representative to the UN Office in Geneva.
• BRICS Summit: It is a high-level meeting of BRICS members and participating countries, with Tarique Rahman having been invited to the summit in New Delhi on September 12-13, 2026.

Tabular Summary:

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10. Who has been unanimously re-elected as president of the News Broadcasters and Digital Association (NBDA) for 2026-27?
A) Rahul Kanwal
B) Jayant Mammen Mathew
C) Rajat Sharma
D) Dhruba Mukherjee
E) Mahesh Kumar Rajaraman
Answer: C) Rajat Sharma.

Event and Location:

• Event: India TV Chairman and Editor-in-Chief Rajat Sharma was unanimously re-elected as NBDA president for 2026-27 by the association’s Board of Directors.
• Location: India.
• Date: September 23, 2026.

Mandates and Objectives:

• Mandates: The NBDA Board of Directors unanimously re-elected Rajat Sharma as president for another term, inducted Jayant Mammen Mathew into the board and announced Rachna Burman and Kshipra Jatana as permanent directors.
• Objectives: The appointments aim to strengthen the leadership and governing structure of NBDA, which represents leading television and digital news and current affairs broadcasters in India.

Important Terms Explained:

• News Broadcasters and Digital Association: It is an industry association representing leading news and current affairs broadcasters and digital platforms in India, with 29 member organisations operating 130 news channels and digital platforms.
• Board of Directors: It is the governing body responsible for key organisational decisions, including the unanimous re-election of Rajat Sharma as NBDA president for 2026-27.
• Annual General Meeting (AGM): It is a formal annual meeting concerning an organisation’s governance and other institutional matters, with NBDA holding its 19th AGM before the board meeting.
• Permanent Directors: These are continuing members of the association’s governing structure, with Rachna Burman of The Times Group and Kshipra Jatana of Network18 Media & Investments appointed to these roles.

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International Affairs – Daily Current Affairs September 23

11. The United States, Denmark and Greenland signed a new Arctic defense agreement in September 2026 to amend which earlier agreement?
A) 1949 North Atlantic Treaty
B) 1951 Greenland Defense Agreement
C) 1954 Arctic Security Agreement
D) 1961 Nordic Defense Agreement
E) 1972 Greenland Cooperation Agreement
Answer: B) 1951 Greenland Defense Agreement.

Event and Location:

• Event: The United States, Denmark and Greenland signed an agreement amending and expanding the 1951 Greenland Defense Agreement to strengthen military access, defense infrastructure and Arctic security cooperation.
• Location: The agreement was signed in New York and applies to Greenland and wider Arctic security cooperation.
• Date: September 22, 2026.

Mandates and Objectives:

• Mandates: The revised agreement expands US military activities at Pituffik Space Base, provides for additional Defense Areas at Narsarsuaq and Mestersvig, enables military transit across Greenland and strengthens cooperation in defense, surveillance, intelligence and investment screening.
• Objectives: The agreement aims to strengthen the defense of Greenland, the North Atlantic Treaty Organization and the American continent while considering Greenlandic interests, environmental protection, local economic participation and security risks from sensitive foreign investments.

Important Terms Explained:

• 1951 Greenland Defense Agreement: It is the existing defense framework governing US military activities and defense cooperation in Greenland, which the new trilateral agreement amends and expands.
• Pituffik Space Base: It is a US military facility in northwest Greenland where the revised agreement permits the United States to improve and expand its military activities.
• Defense Areas: These are designated locations for defense-related operations and infrastructure, with additional areas provided for at Narsarsuaq and Mestersvig.
• NATO Engagement in the Arctic: It refers to increased cooperation among NATO members in areas such as military planning, presence, exercises, intelligence gathering and surveillance across the strategically important Arctic region.
• Foreign Investment Screening: It is the process of examining foreign investments in sensitive sectors to prevent control, influence or access to sensitive information that could threaten national security or public order.

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Schemes – Daily Current Affairs September 23

12. By which year has India committed to eliminating Hepatitis B and C as public health threats?
A) 2027
B) 2028
C) 2030
D) 2035
E) 2040
Answer: C) 2030.

Event and Location:

• Event: India reaffirmed its commitment to eliminate Hepatitis B and C as public health threats by 2030 through prevention, screening, diagnosis, treatment and care.
• Location: The commitment was highlighted at a side event of the 81st session of the United Nations General Assembly.
• Date: September 23, 2026.

Mandates and Objectives:

• Mandates: India is pursuing a people-centric and comprehensive public health strategy covering prevention, screening, early diagnosis, treatment and care to address Hepatitis B and C.
• Objectives: The strategy aims to reduce the hepatitis disease burden, prevent new infections, detect cases early, provide timely treatment and advance India’s commitment towards the 2030 Sustainable Development Goals on hepatitis.

Important Terms Explained:

• Hepatitis B and C: These are viral infections affecting the liver that can cause chronic disease and serious long-term health complications when infections remain undetected or untreated.
• United Nations General Assembly (UNGA): It is the main deliberative and representative organ of the United Nations, with India’s hepatitis elimination strategy highlighted at a side event of its 81st session.
• Central Drugs Standard Control Organisation (CDSCO): It is India’s central drug regulatory organisation, which issued an advisory concerning the misuse of painkillers and antibiotics because of their potential health risks.
• Non-Steroidal Anti-Inflammatory Drugs (NSAIDs): These are medicines commonly used to reduce pain and inflammation, and their inappropriate use may contribute to health risks including Chronic Kidney Disease.
• Chronic Kidney Disease (CKD): It is a long-term condition involving progressive impairment of kidney function, with inappropriate use of certain medicines identified as a potential risk.
• Schedule H and H1 Drugs: Under the Drugs Rules, 1945, Schedule H covers prescription medicines including NSAIDs, while Schedule H1 includes antibiotics and requires specified warnings and controls on their use.

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13. What is the annual health coverage provided to eligible beneficiaries under Ayushman Bharat – Pradhan Mantri Jan Arogya Yojana (AB-PMJAY)?
A) ₹1 lakh
B) ₹2 lakh
C) ₹3 lakh
D) ₹5 lakh
E) ₹10 lakh
Answer: D) ₹5 lakh.

Event and Location:

• Event: Ayushman Bharat PM-JAY completed eight years, covering more than 60 crore people and providing cashless healthcare services to around 13 crore beneficiaries.
• Location: India, with the scheme originally launched from Ranchi, Jharkhand.
• Date: September 23, 2026.

Mandates and Objectives:

• Mandates: AB-PMJAY provides eligible beneficiaries with annual health coverage of up to ₹5 lakh and access to cashless secondary and tertiary healthcare through a network of more than 38,000 empanelled public and private hospitals.
• Objectives: The scheme aims to provide health security to poor, vulnerable and needy sections of society, improve access to affordable healthcare and reduce the financial burden associated with major medical treatment.

Important Terms Explained:

• Ayushman Card: It is the beneficiary identification card used under AB-PMJAY to facilitate access to eligible healthcare benefits, with more than 48.54 crore cards issued.
• Cashless Treatment: It enables eligible beneficiaries to receive covered medical treatment at empanelled hospitals without directly paying the covered treatment cost at the point of service.
• Empanelled Hospitals: These are public and private healthcare facilities authorised to provide eligible services under AB-PMJAY, with more than 38,000 hospitals included in the network.
• Ayushman Arogya Mandirs: These are healthcare facilities focused on strengthening comprehensive primary healthcare services and have recorded more than 500 crore visits.
• Health Assurance: It refers to providing eligible beneficiaries with financial protection and access to specified healthcare services under a government-supported programme.

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National Affairs – Daily Current Affairs September 23

14. According to the September 2026 World Economic Forum (WEF) Chief Economists’ Outlook, what percentage of respondents expected strong or very strong growth in India over the coming 12 months?
A) 52%
B) 61%
C) 68%
D) 74%
E) 98%
Answer: D) 74%.

Event and Location:

• Event: India emerged with the strongest growth outlook among the geographies surveyed in the WEF Chief Economists’ Outlook, with 74% of respondents expecting strong or very strong growth.
• Location: Global survey, with India recording the strongest growth outlook among the surveyed geographies.
• Date: September 23, 2026.

Mandates and Objectives:

• Mandates: The WEF survey assessed chief economists’ expectations for economic growth across major geographies, with 98% expecting moderate or stronger growth in India and 74% expecting strong or very strong growth over the coming 12 months.
• Objectives: The survey aims to assess economic sentiment, regional growth expectations, business conditions and major global risks affecting economic activity and investment.

Important Terms Explained:

• Chief Economists’ Outlook: It is a World Economic Forum assessment that captures the views of leading chief economists on global and regional economic conditions, risks and growth prospects.
• Domestic Demand: It refers to demand for goods and services within a country and was identified as a major factor supporting India’s economic growth outlook.
• Business Environment: It refers to conditions influencing companies’ ability and willingness to operate and invest, with India ranking fourth in this category compared with second in the May survey.
• Geopolitical Risks: These are economic uncertainties arising from international conflicts and political tensions, with 97% of respondents identifying geopolitical conflicts as a potential source of uncertainty over the following year.

Tabular Summary:

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15. From which date will all Assam government offices transition to a paperless e-Office system?
A) October 1, 2026
B) November 1, 2026
C) December 1, 2026
D) January 1, 2027
E) April 1, 2027
Answer: D) January 1, 2027.

Event and Location:

• Event: The Assam Government announced that all government offices will transition to a paperless e-Office system to expand digital administration across the state.
• Location: Assam, India.
• Date: January 1, 2027.

Mandates and Objectives:

• Mandates: The Assam Government has set January 1, 2027, as the deadline for all government offices to adopt electronic file processing under the e-Office system, extending the existing digital framework beyond the Secretariat and selected offices.
• Objectives: The initiative aims to make public administration more transparent, efficient and people-friendly by digitising file movement, official documentation, approvals, monitoring and archival processes.

Important Terms Explained:

• e-Office System: It is a digital workplace platform designed by the National Informatics Centre that replaces paper-based government processes with electronic file handling and document management.
• National Informatics Centre (NIC): It is the organisation that designed the e-Office platform used for digitising administrative processes and government file management.
• Digital Governance: It refers to the use of digital technologies in government administration and public service processes to improve efficiency, transparency and accessibility.
• Electronic File Management: It involves digitally creating, transferring, tracking, processing, signing and archiving official government files instead of relying on physical documents.

Tabular Summary:

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16. Which state police launched the Centralised Drone Monitoring Portal (CDMP) and SafeStay AP app for technology-based surveillance and public safety?
A) Telangana
B) Tamil Nadu
C) Andhra Pradesh
D) Karnataka
E) Kerala
Answer: C) Andhra Pradesh.

Event and Location:

• Event: Andhra Pradesh Police launched the AI-based Centralised Drone Monitoring Portal and SafeStay AP app to strengthen surveillance, crime prevention, field intelligence and public safety.
• Location: Guntur, Andhra Pradesh.
• Date: September 22, 2026.

Mandates and Objectives:

• Mandates: Andhra Pradesh DGP Harish Kumar Gupta, in collaboration with Guntur SP Vakul Jindal, rolled out CDMP for centralised monitoring of police drone feeds and SafeStay AP for accessing occupancy information from hotels and paying guest accommodations.
• Objectives: The initiatives aim to improve real-time situational awareness, accelerate police response, strengthen preventive policing and use technology to enhance public safety and citizen services.

Important Terms Explained:

• Centralised Drone Monitoring Portal (CDMP): It is an AI-enabled platform that provides authorised Andhra Pradesh Police personnel with a centralised interface for accessing and monitoring live feeds from active police drones.
• SafeStay AP: It is an application designed to provide police with occupancy-related information about individuals staying in hotels and paying guest accommodations across Andhra Pradesh for safety and crime-prevention purposes.
• Role-Based Access Control (RBAC): It is a security mechanism that provides system access based on an authorised user’s assigned role and responsibilities.
• AI-Powered Monitoring and Analytics: It refers to the use of artificial intelligence to analyse surveillance information and assist police personnel in assessing situations and responding to events.
• Preventive Policing: It refers to policing measures designed to identify risks and prevent crimes or public-safety incidents before they occur.

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Quick Recall

Over All Review

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