Daily Current Affairs August 24
Table of Contents
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August 24 | Daily Current Affairs 2026
Sports – Daily Current Affairs August 24
1. Who won the 2026 Dutch Grand Prix at Zandvoort?
A) Kimi Antonelli
B) George Russell
C) Lando Norris
D) Lewis Hamilton
E) Charles Leclerc
Answer: C) Lando Norris.
Event and Location:
- Event: Lando Norris of McLaren won the 2026 Dutch Grand Prix, finishing ahead of Kimi Antonelli and George Russell.
- Location: The race was held at Zandvoort in the Netherlands.
- Date: The result was reported on August 24, 2026.
Mandates and Objectives:
- Mandates: The Formula 1 Dutch Grand Prix featured Lando Norris securing victory by 11.536 seconds, while Max Verstappen retired early following a crash and Mercedes drivers Kimi Antonelli and George Russell completed the podium.
- Objectives: The race formed part of the 2026 Formula 1 season, with drivers competing for race victory and championship points through on-track performance and tyre and pit-stop strategy.
Important Terms Explained:
- Virtual Safety Car: A Formula 1 race-control procedure that requires all drivers to reduce their speed to a prescribed level without deploying the physical Safety Car.
- Pole Position: The first starting position on the grid, usually awarded to the driver who records the fastest qualifying time.
- Red Flag: A signal used to suspend a race when track conditions, an accident, debris, or another safety concern makes continued racing unsafe.
Tabular Summary:
| Parameter | Details |
| Event name | 2026 Dutch Grand Prix. |
| Venue | Zandvoort, Netherlands. |
| Winner | Lando Norris of McLaren. |
| Runner-up | Kimi Antonelli of Mercedes. |
| Third place | George Russell of Mercedes. |
| Winning margin | Norris defeated Antonelli by 11.536 seconds. |
| Major retirement | Max Verstappen crashed early and retired after completing only one lap. |
| Race significance | Norris recorded his second successive victory of the 2026 Formula 1 season. |
2. Which Indian wrestler won the silver medal in the women’s 68kg category at the U20 World Championships in Slovakia?
A) Kajal Dhochak
B) Mansi Lather
C) Tanvi Gundesh Magdum
D) Komal
E) Tanu Sharma
Answer: B) Mansi Lather.
Event and Location:
- Event: Indian women wrestlers won three additional medals at the U20 World Championships, with Mansi Lather securing silver and Tanvi Gundesh Magdum and Komal winning bronze medals.
- Location: The U20 World Championships were held in Slovakia.
- Date: The achievements were reported on August 24, 2026.
Mandates and Objectives:
- Mandates: Mansi Lather competed in the women’s 68kg final and won silver, while Tanvi Gundesh Magdum and Komal secured bronze medals in the 57kg and 59kg categories respectively.
- Objectives: The Indian wrestlers competed to secure medals across different women’s freestyle weight categories and strengthen India’s overall performance at the championship.
Important Terms Explained:
- Technical Superiority: In wrestling, technical superiority refers to ending a bout early when one wrestler establishes the prescribed points advantage over the opponent.
- Bronze Medal Playoff: A bronze medal playoff is a classification bout in which wrestlers compete for third place and a bronze medal after missing qualification for the final.
- Weight Category: A weight category is a competitive division that groups wrestlers according to specified body-weight limits to ensure fair competition.
Tabular Summary:
| Parameter | Details |
| Event name | U20 World Championships. |
| Host country | Slovakia. |
| Mansi Lather | Won silver in the women’s 68kg category after losing 1-2 to China’s Chenling Song. |
| Tanvi Gundesh Magdum | Won bronze in the women’s 57kg category after defeating Canada’s Agnia Krakovska 10-4. |
| Komal | Won bronze in the women’s 59kg category after defeating Hungary’s Eda Balazs 5-2. |
| Kajal Dhochak | Won gold in the women’s 76kg category by defeating China’s Jingru Sun 7-0. |
| Tanu Sharma | Won silver in the women’s 72kg category after a 3-5 final loss to Japan’s Chisato Yoshida. |
| Savita | Won silver in the women’s 62kg category after losing 2-12 to Japan’s Sakura Onishi. |
3. Which of the following players has been selected in India’s 12-member men’s kabaddi squad for the Asian Games 2026?
A) Pawan Sehrawat
B) Naveen Kumar
C) Maninder Singh
D) Pardeep Narwal
E) Deepak Hooda
Answer: A) Pawan Sehrawat.
Event and Location:
- Event: India announced a 12-member men’s kabaddi squad for the Asian Games 2026, combining experienced players such as Pawan Sehrawat with young performers including Ayan Lohchab and Devank Dalal.
- Location: The 20th Asian Games will be held in Aichi-Nagoya, Japan.
- Date: The Asian Games will be held from September 19 to October 4, 2026, while kabaddi events are scheduled from September 21 to 26, 2026.
Mandates and Objectives:
- Mandates: India selected a 12-member men’s kabaddi team comprising Ashu Malik, Ayan Lohchab, Devank Dalal, Arjun Deshwal, Sunil Kumar, Jaideep Dahiya, Rahul Sethpal, Gaurav Khatri, Sumit Sangwan, Ankit Jaglan, Pawan Sehrawat, and Aslam Inamdar for the continental competition.
- Objectives: The squad aims to combine young attacking talent, experienced raiders, and established defenders to strengthen India’s challenge in men’s kabaddi and compete for another Asian Games medal.
Important Terms Explained:
- Pro Kabaddi League: A professional franchise-based kabaddi competition in India that provides a major competitive platform for leading domestic and international kabaddi players.
- Raider: A kabaddi player who enters the opposition half to score points by touching defenders and returning safely to the player’s own half.
- Shachihoko: A mythical Japanese creature with the body of a carp and the head of a tiger that inspired Honohon, the official mascot of the Aichi-Nagoya Asian Games.
Tabular Summary:
| Parameter | Details |
| Event name | 20th Asian Games 2026. |
| Host region | Aichi-Nagoya, Japan. |
| Games duration | September 19 to October 4, 2026. |
| Kabaddi schedule | September 21 to 26, 2026. |
| India’s men’s squad strength | India has named a 12-member men’s kabaddi team. |
| Experienced gold medallists | Arjun Deshwal, Sunil Kumar, Pawan Sehrawat, and Aslam Inamdar were members of India’s Hangzhou Asian Games gold-winning side. |
| Key young players | Ayan Lohchab and Devank Dalal were selected after strong Pro Kabaddi League performances. |
| Mascot and motto | Honohon is the mascot, while “Imagine One Asia” is the official motto. |
4. Who became the highest wicket-taker in ICC World Test Championship (WTC) history with 234 wickets?
A) Pat Cummins
B) Nathan Lyon
C) Mitchell Starc
D) Kagiso Rabada
E) Ravichandran Ashwin
Answer: C) Mitchell Starc.
Event and Location:
- Event: Australian left-arm fast bowler Mitchell Starc became the leading wicket-taker in ICC World Test Championship history with 234 wickets.
- Location: Starc achieved the milestone during the second Test against Bangladesh at Mackay, Australia.
- Date: The achievement was reported on August 24, 2026.
Mandates and Objectives:
- Mandates: Starc surpassed teammates Pat Cummins and Nathan Lyon after producing a 10-wicket match haul against Bangladesh, taking his WTC tally to 234 wickets.
- Objectives: The performance strengthened Starc’s position among the leading Test bowlers and helped Australia dominate Bangladesh through his match-winning fast bowling.
Important Terms Explained:
- Five-Wicket Haul: A bowling achievement in cricket where a bowler takes five or more wickets in a single innings.
- Ten-Wicket Match Haul: A feat in which a bowler takes at least 10 wickets across both innings of a Test match.
- Bowling Average: The average number of runs conceded by a bowler for each wicket taken, calculated by dividing total runs conceded by total wickets.
Tabular Summary:
| Parameter | Details |
| Record holder | Mitchell Starc became the highest wicket-taker in WTC history. |
| WTC wickets | Starc reached 234 wickets. |
| Players surpassed | Pat Cummins and Nathan Lyon, who had 228 wickets each. |
| Opponent | Bangladesh in the second Test at Mackay. |
| Key performance | Starc recorded a 10-wicket match haul against Bangladesh. |
| First-innings figures | Starc took 6 wickets for 12 runs in 10 overs. |
| Overall Test wickets | His Test tally reached 445 wickets, moving him into the top 10 wicket-takers in Test cricket history. |
| 2025–27 WTC cycle | Starc had taken 58 wickets from 10 matches at an average of 16.98, including four five-wicket hauls. |
5. Which Indian chess player won the Kanizsa Open 2026 Group A title in Hungary?
A) Karthik Venkataraman
B) Neelash Saha
C) Pranesh M
D) Nitish Belurkar
E) Ajay Santhosh Parvathareddy
Answer: C) Pranesh M.
Event and Location:
- Event: Indian Grandmaster Pranesh M won the Kanizsa Open 2026 Group A title after finishing with seven points from nine rounds and prevailing on superior tiebreak scores.
- Location: The tournament was held in Nagykanizsa, Hungary.
- Date: The achievement was reported on August 24, 2026.
Mandates and Objectives:
- Mandates: Pranesh M defeated Germany’s Vadim Petrovskiy with the white pieces in the ninth and final round to reach seven points and finish level with three other players at the top.
- Objectives: The tournament determined the champion based on overall points and tiebreak criteria, with Pranesh securing the title ahead of the other joint leaders through superior tiebreak scores.
Important Terms Explained:
- Tiebreak: A tiebreak is a predefined method used in chess tournaments to rank players who finish with the same number of points.
- FIDE Rating: A numerical rating issued under the international chess federation system to indicate a player’s competitive strength based on tournament results.
- International Master: A prestigious chess title awarded by FIDE to players who meet specified performance and rating requirements, ranking below the Grandmaster title.
Tabular Summary:
| Parameter | Details |
| Event name | Kanizsa Open 2026 Group A. |
| Winner | Pranesh M of India. |
| Venue | Nagykanizsa, Hungary. |
| Winning score | Pranesh scored seven points from nine rounds. |
| Final-round result | Pranesh defeated Germany’s Vadim Petrovskiy with the white pieces. |
| Title-deciding factor | Four players finished on seven points, with Pranesh winning through superior tiebreak scores. |
| Player profile | Pranesh is a 19-year-old Grandmaster from Karaikudi, Tamil Nadu. |
| Tournament field | The Group A event featured 226 players, including several Indian participants. |
Science and Technology – Daily Current Affairs August 24
6. By which year does India plan to establish the Bharatiya Antariksha Station (BAS)?
A) 2030
B) 2032
C) 2035
D) 2040
E) 2045
Answer: C) 2035.
Event and Location:
- Event: ISRO Chairman V Narayanan announced that India plans to establish the Bharatiya Antariksha Station by 2035, with its first module already approved.
- Location: The announcement was made during the third National Space Day celebrations in Ahmedabad, Gujarat, India.
- Date: The announcement was made on August 23, 2026.
Mandates and Objectives:
- Mandates: India plans to develop its own space station by 2035 by building on technologies and facilities developed under the Gaganyaan programme, while strengthening capabilities for sustained human activities in space.
- Objectives: The initiative aims to enable long-duration human space missions, conduct scientific research, test new technologies, and expand India’s capabilities in human spaceflight and space exploration.
Important Terms Explained:
- Human Spaceflight: Human spaceflight refers to space missions in which astronauts travel beyond Earth using spacecraft designed to support human life and operations.
- Space Station: A space station is an orbital facility designed to support astronauts for extended periods while enabling scientific research, technology demonstrations, and other activities in space.
- Remote Sensing: Remote sensing is the collection of information about Earth’s surface from satellites or other platforms without direct physical contact, commonly used for agriculture, mapping, weather monitoring, and disaster management.
Tabular Summary:
| Parameter | Details |
| Event name | India’s plan to establish the Bharatiya Antariksha Station by 2035. |
| Date | August 23, 2026. |
| Location | Ahmedabad, Gujarat, India. |
| Announcing authority | ISRO Chairman V Narayanan. |
| Target year | India aims to establish its space station by 2035. |
| First module status | The first module of the proposed station has already been approved. |
| Programme linkage | The space station will build on facilities and experience developed through the Gaganyaan programme. |
| Strategic significance | The station is expected to support research, technology testing, and long-term human activities in space. |
7. According to the study, which country had the highest average rocket launch cost per kilogram of payload in 2025?
A) China
B) Japan
C) India
D) Russia
E) USA
Answer: C) India.
Event and Location:
- Event: A study published in Economics Letters found that India had the highest average cost per kilogram for sending payload into orbit among major space powers in 2025.
- Location: The study compared major space powers including India, the United States, Europe, Russia, China, and Japan.
- Date: The findings were reported on August 24, 2026, using launch data covering 1960 to 2025.
Mandates and Objectives:
- Mandates: The study titled “Geopolitics and space access: cost asymmetries and strategic dependence” analysed more than 6,740 rocket launches to compare launch costs, payload capacities, cost trends, and changing patterns of global space access.
- Objectives: The research aimed to examine differences in launch costs among major space powers and assess how technological capability, launch frequency, reusable systems, and domestic launch capacity influence economic efficiency and strategic autonomy.
Important Terms Explained:
- Reusable Rockets: Launch vehicles designed so that major components can be recovered and flown again, helping reduce launch costs by spreading hardware expenses across multiple missions.
- Economies of Scale: Cost advantages achieved when higher production or launch volumes reduce the average cost per unit, including the average cost of carrying payload into orbit.
- Strategic Autonomy: A country’s ability to independently access and use critical capabilities such as space-launch systems without excessive dependence on foreign providers.
Tabular Summary:
| Parameter | Details |
| Study scope | Researchers analysed more than 6,740 rocket launches conducted between 1960 and 2025. |
| India’s 2025 cost | India’s estimated average launch cost was $13,302 per kilogram of payload. |
| US 2025 cost | The United States recorded an estimated average cost of $3,225 per kilogram. |
| Global average | The estimated global average launch cost was $3,868 per kilogram in 2025. |
| Main reason for India’s high cost | Smaller rockets distribute substantial fixed launch expenses across fewer kilograms of payload. |
| Cost improvement trend | Only the United States and Europe recorded statistically significant launch-cost improvements between 2010 and 2025. |
| SpaceX contribution | SpaceX accounted for around 75% of global payload sent into orbit in 2025. |
| India’s future focus | Higher launch frequency, larger payload capacity, technological innovation, and reusable launch systems could help reduce costs. |
Defence – Daily Current Affairs August 24
8. Where was India’s first 100% indigenous AK-203 ‘Sher’ rifle manufactured?
A) Lucknow
B) Kanpur
C) Amethi
D) Nagpur
E) Pune
Answer: C) Amethi.
Event and Location:
- Event: India successfully manufactured and test-fired its first fully indigenous AK-203 ‘Sher’ rifle, made entirely with Indian components and raw materials.
- Location: The rifle was manufactured at the Korwa factory of Indo-Russian Rifles Private Limited (IRRPL) in Amethi, Uttar Pradesh.
- Date: The achievement was reported on August 24, 2026, while Indian Army trials are planned for September 2026.
Mandates and Objectives:
- Mandates: IRRPL is developing fully indigenous AK-203 prototypes for Indian Army trials and plans to manufacture around six lakh rifles ordered by the Army while increasing production capacity and localisation.
- Objectives: The programme aims to achieve complete indigenisation of assault-rifle manufacturing, accelerate deliveries to the Indian Army, and support the replacement of ageing INSAS rifles with modern AK-203 rifles.
Important Terms Explained:
- Make in India: A Government of India initiative aimed at promoting domestic manufacturing, investment, innovation, and production capabilities across strategic sectors, including defence.
- Atmanirbhar Bharat: An initiative focused on strengthening India’s self-reliance by expanding domestic production capacity and reducing dependence on imported goods and technologies.
- Gas-Operated Mechanism: A firearm operating system that uses gas generated during firing to cycle the weapon’s action and prepare it for the next round.
Tabular Summary:
| Parameter | Details |
| Achievement | India produced and successfully test-fired its first AK-203 ‘Sher’ rifle made with 100% indigenous components and raw materials. |
| Manufacturing location | Korwa factory in Amethi, Uttar Pradesh. |
| Manufacturer | Indo-Russian Rifles Private Limited, an India-Russia joint venture established in 2019. |
| Army trials | Fully indigenous prototypes are being prepared for Indian Army trials scheduled for September 2026. |
| Army order | Around six lakh AK-203 rifles have been ordered for the Indian Army. |
| Production target | IRRPL plans to reach a manufacturing rate of one AK-203 rifle every 100 seconds. |
| Key specifications | The rifle uses 7.62×39 mm ammunition, has a firing rate of about 700 rounds per minute, and a stated range of 800 metres. |
| Operational purpose | The rifles are intended to support the replacement of ageing INSAS rifles and improve combat effectiveness. |
International Affairs – Daily Current Affairs August 24
9. Which three countries are parties to the Makkah Joint Defence Agreement (MJDA)?
A) Saudi Arabia, Türkiye and Pakistan
B) Saudi Arabia, Iran and Pakistan
C) Türkiye, Qatar and Pakistan
D) Saudi Arabia, UAE and Türkiye
E) Pakistan, Iran and Türkiye
Answer: A) Saudi Arabia, Türkiye and Pakistan.
Event and Location:
- Event: Saudi Arabia, Türkiye and Pakistan signed the Makkah Joint Defence Agreement, establishing a trilateral security framework based on collective defence and enhanced military cooperation.
- Location: The agreement was signed at Al-Safa Palace in Makkah, Saudi Arabia, with implications for security dynamics across West Asia.
- Date: Türkiye joined the framework in August 2026, transforming the earlier Saudi-Pakistan bilateral defence arrangement into a trilateral pact.
Mandates and Objectives:
- Mandates: The agreement provides that an armed attack against one member will be regarded as an attack against all three, while envisaging joint military training, exercises, intelligence sharing, security coordination and collective deterrence.
- Objectives: The pact aims to strengthen regional security cooperation by combining Saudi Arabia’s financial resources, Türkiye’s defence-industrial capabilities and Pakistan’s military strength amid heightened geopolitical tensions in West Asia.
Important Terms Explained:
- Collective Defence: A security principle under which an attack on one member of an alliance or pact is treated as an attack on all participating members.
- Strategic Deterrence: The use of military capability, alliances and credible defensive commitments to discourage an adversary from initiating aggression.
- Saudi-Pakistan Strategic Mutual Defence Agreement: A bilateral defence framework signed in September 2025 that formed the basis for the subsequent trilateral arrangement after Türkiye joined in August 2026.
Tabular Summary:
| Parameter | Details |
| Agreement name | Makkah Joint Defence Agreement. |
| Member countries | Saudi Arabia, Türkiye and Pakistan. |
| Signing location | Al-Safa Palace, Makkah, Saudi Arabia. |
| Framework evolution | The pact developed from the Saudi-Pakistan Strategic Mutual Defence Agreement signed in September 2025. |
| Türkiye’s entry | Türkiye joined the arrangement in August 2026, converting it into a trilateral framework. |
| Core provision | Armed aggression against one member is to be considered an attack against all three members. |
| Key cooperation areas | Joint military exercises, training, intelligence sharing, security coordination and deterrence. |
| India-related significance | The pact could affect India’s western strategic environment, Gulf relations, defence competition and security calculations involving Pakistan. |
National Affairs – Daily Current Affairs August 24
10. How many days of maternity leave can eligible female Uttar Pradesh state government employees avail twice during their service under the revised rules?
A) 90 days
B) 120 days
C) 150 days
D) 180 days
E) 240 days
Answer: D) 180 days.
Event and Location:
- Event: The Uttar Pradesh Cabinet approved 180 days of maternity leave twice during service for eligible female state government employees and removed the mandatory two-year gap between two maternity leaves.
- Location: The revised maternity leave provisions apply to eligible female state government employees in Uttar Pradesh.
- Date: The Cabinet approved the decision on August 22, 2026.
Mandates and Objectives:
- Mandates: The amendment to Rule 153(1) of the Uttar Pradesh Financial Handbook allows eligible women state government employees to avail 180 days, or six months, of maternity leave twice during their service without maintaining the earlier two-year interval between the two leaves.
- Objectives: The revised provision aims to provide working mothers adequate time for pregnancy, childbirth, recovery, childcare, and related family responsibilities while removing the restrictive waiting-period condition.
Important Terms Explained:
- Maternity Leave: Maternity leave is authorised leave granted to eligible women employees in connection with pregnancy, childbirth, recovery, and care of a newborn child.
- Adoptive Mothers: Adoptive mothers are women who legally adopt a child and, under the revised provision cited in the article, are also covered for the 180-day maternity leave benefit.
- Two-Year Waiting Period: The two-year waiting period was the earlier requirement that restricted employees from taking a second maternity leave within two years of the first, and this condition has now been removed.
Tabular Summary:
| Parameter | Details |
| Decision | Uttar Pradesh approved 180 days of maternity leave twice during an eligible woman employee’s service. |
| Approval date | August 22, 2026. |
| Eligible employees | Female employees of the Uttar Pradesh state government. |
| Leave duration | Each eligible maternity leave period can extend up to 180 days, or six months. |
| Service limit | The benefit can be availed twice during the employee’s service period. |
| Major amendment | The mandatory two-year gap between two maternity leaves has been removed. |
| Relevant rule | The amendment concerns Rule 153(1) of the Uttar Pradesh Financial Handbook. |
| Additional coverage | The revised provision has also been reported to extend the 180-day benefit to adoptive mothers. |
11. What is the proposed capacity of the Green Integrated AI Data Centre Facility approved by the Andhra Pradesh government in Visakhapatnam?
A) 256 MW
B) 384 MW
C) 512 MW
D) 640 MW
E) 768 MW
Answer: C) 512 MW.
Event and Location:
- Event: The Andhra Pradesh government approved a ₹31,387-crore-plus green artificial intelligence data centre project to be developed by AM AI Factory (Vizag) Pvt Ltd.
- Location: The proposed facility will be established at Amanam village in Bheemunipatnam mandal of Visakhapatnam district, Andhra Pradesh.
- Date: The project approval was reported on August 24, 2026.
Mandates and Objectives:
- Mandates: AM AI Factory (Vizag) Pvt Ltd will establish a 512 MW integrated AI data centre facility with state support for power infrastructure, water supply, stamp duty exemption and electricity duty incentives.
- Objectives: The project aims to attract large-scale technology investment to Andhra Pradesh, develop advanced AI and data centre infrastructure, and create employment opportunities for about 1,000 people.
Important Terms Explained:
- Artificial Intelligence Data Centre: A specialised data centre designed to provide high-performance computing, storage and processing infrastructure required for artificial intelligence workloads and applications.
- Green Data Centre: A data centre designed to reduce its environmental impact through efficient energy use, sustainable infrastructure and resource optimisation.
- Fiscal Incentives: Financial benefits provided by a government to encourage investment, such as exemptions from stamp duty and electricity duty in this project.
Tabular Summary:
| Parameter | Details |
| Project name | 512 MW Green Integrated AI Data Centre Facility. |
| Investment | More than ₹31,387 crore. |
| Location | Amanam village, Bheemunipatnam mandal, Visakhapatnam district, Andhra Pradesh. |
| Developer | AM AI Factory (Vizag) Pvt Ltd. |
| Capacity | The proposed integrated AI data centre will have a capacity of 512 MW. |
| Completion period | The facility is expected to be established within two years and four months. |
| Employment potential | The project is expected to generate employment for about 1,000 people. |
| Government support | Incentives include power and water infrastructure support along with stamp duty and electricity duty exemptions. |
Over All Review
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Sports
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Science and Technology
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Defence
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International Affairs
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National Affairs
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