Daily Current Affairs April 23
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April 23 | Daily Current Affairs 2026
Important Days – Daily Current Affairs April 23
1. World Book and Copyright Day 2026 was observed on which date?
A) April 21
B) April 22
C) April 23
D) April 24
E) May 1
Answer: C) April 23.
Event and Location:
- Event: World Book and Copyright Day 2026 was observed to celebrate books, authors, reading culture, creativity, and copyright protection.
Mandates and Objectives:
- Mandates: The observance promotes reading, publishing, literary culture, and awareness about copyright laws that protect authors’ rights.
Important Terms Explained:
- World Book and Copyright Day: It is an annual UNESCO observance celebrated on April 23 to promote books, reading, publishing, and copyright protection.
- UNESCO: The United Nations Educational, Scientific and Cultural Organization is a UN agency that promotes international cooperation in education, science, culture, communication, and information.
- Copyright: Copyright is a legal protection that gives authors and creators rights over their original literary, artistic, or creative works.
- World Book Capital: World Book Capital is a UNESCO title given annually to a city that undertakes programmes to promote books, reading, literacy, and publishing.
- Multilingualism: Multilingualism refers to the promotion and use of multiple languages to make knowledge, literature, and learning resources accessible to diverse linguistic communities.
Tabular Summary:
| Parameter | Details |
| Event name | World Book and Copyright Day 2026. |
| Date | April 23, 2026. |
| Location | Observed globally. |
| Established by | UNESCO. |
| Established year | 1995. |
| World Book Capital 2026 | Rabat, Morocco. |
| 2026 focus | Multilingualism and access to books in diverse languages. |
| Purpose / reason | To promote reading culture, protect authors’ rights, preserve knowledge, and support creativity. |
2. English Language Day 2026 was observed on which date?
A) April 21
B) April 22
C) April 23
D) April 24
E) April 25
Answer: C) April 23.
Event and Location:
- Event: English Language Day 2026 was observed to celebrate the importance of English in global communication, education, diplomacy, business, and culture.
Mandates and Objectives:
- Mandates: The United Nations established English Language Day as part of its Language Days initiative to recognise English as one of the six official languages of the UN.
Important Terms Explained:
- English Language Day: It is a United Nations observance celebrated on April 23 to recognise the role of English in global communication, literature, culture, diplomacy, education, and business.
- United Nations Language Days: It is an initiative launched in 2010 to promote multilingualism, cultural diversity, and equal use of the six official languages of the United Nations.
- Multilingualism: Multilingualism refers to the use and promotion of multiple languages to support cultural diversity, inclusive communication, and wider access to knowledge.
- UN official languages: The six official languages of the United Nations are Arabic, Chinese, English, French, Russian, and Spanish, used for international communication and documentation.
- Working language: A working language is a language commonly used for day-to-day official communication within an organisation, and English is one of the UN’s working languages along with French.
Tabular Summary:
| Parameter | Details |
| Event name | English Language Day 2026. |
| Date | April 23, 2026. |
| Day | Thursday. |
| Location | Observed globally. |
| Established by | United Nations. |
| Established year | 2010. |
| Honours | William Shakespeare’s contribution to English language and literature. |
| Purpose / reason | To promote English as a global language and support multilingualism, cultural diversity, education, diplomacy, and communication. |
Sports – Daily Current Affairs April 23
3. India was placed in Category A by which organisation due to rising doping violation risks in athletics?
A) World Athletics Council
B) National Anti-Doping Agency
C) Athletics Integrity Unit
D) International Olympic Committee
E) Athletics Federation of India
Answer: C) Athletics Integrity Unit.
Event and Location:
- Event: Athletics Integrity Unit placed India in Category A due to high risk of doping violations in athletics.
Mandates and Objectives:
- Mandates: The Athletics Integrity Unit upgraded India to Category A after the country consistently ranked among the top nations for Anti-Doping Rule Violations between 2022 and 2025.
Important Terms Explained:
- Category A: Category A is a high-risk classification used by the Athletics Integrity Unit for countries with serious doping-related concerns and stricter compliance requirements.
- Anti-Doping Rule Violations: Anti-Doping Rule Violations refer to breaches of anti-doping rules, including use, possession, trafficking, or administration of banned substances or methods.
- National Anti-Doping Agency: National Anti-Doping Agency is India’s anti-doping body responsible for testing, awareness, and enforcement against doping in sports.
- Athletics Federation of India: Athletics Federation of India is the national governing body for athletics in India and is responsible for managing athletics competitions and athlete development.
- Intelligence-based investigations: Intelligence-based investigations use targeted information, data, and evidence to identify doping networks, suppliers, coaches, or support staff involved in violations.
Tabular Summary:
| Parameter | Details |
| Event name | India placed in AIU Category A. |
| Date | April 23, 2026. |
| Location | India. |
| Issuing authority | Athletics Integrity Unit. |
| Reason | India recorded high and repeated Anti-Doping Rule Violations from 2022 to 2025. |
| Category status | India was classified as a high-risk nation for doping violations. |
| Key implication | Indian athletes will face stricter testing, monitoring, and compliance requirements. |
| AFI response | AFI accepted the decision and promised stronger education, testing, investigations, and penalties. |
Obituary – Daily Current Affairs April 23
4. Who among the following former Chief Ministers of undivided Andhra Pradesh passed away in Hyderabad at the age of 90?
A) N T Rama Rao
B) Nadendla Bhaskar Rao
C) K Rosaiah
D) N Chandrababu Naidu
E) Y S Rajasekhara Reddy
Answer: B) Nadendla Bhaskar Rao.
Event and Location:
- Event: Nadendla Bhaskar Rao, former Chief Minister of undivided Andhra Pradesh, passed away at the age of 90.
Mandates and Objectives:
- Mandates: The news reports the death of former Andhra Pradesh Chief Minister Nadendla Bhaskar Rao, who had a long political career and played a controversial role in the 1984 political crisis.
Important Terms Explained:
- Nadendla Bhaskar Rao: Nadendla Bhaskar Rao was a former Chief Minister of undivided Andhra Pradesh who served briefly for 31 days during the 1984 political crisis.
- August Coup: August Coup refers to the 1984 political crisis in Andhra Pradesh when Nadendla Bhaskar Rao was sworn in as Chief Minister while N T Rama Rao was abroad for medical treatment.
- Dharma Yuddham: Dharma Yuddham was the public campaign launched by N T Rama Rao demanding the restoration of democracy and his reinstatement as Chief Minister.
- Telugu Desam Party: Telugu Desam Party is a regional political party founded by N T Rama Rao in 1982, and Nadendla Bhaskar Rao was one of its founding members.
- Undivided Andhra Pradesh: Undivided Andhra Pradesh refers to the state before the formation of Telangana in 2014.
Tabular Summary:
| Parameter | Details |
| Event name | Passing away of Nadendla Bhaskar Rao. |
| Date | April 23, 2026. |
| Location | Hyderabad, Telangana. |
| Age | 90 years. |
| Political identity | Former Chief Minister of undivided Andhra Pradesh. |
| Chief Minister tenure | He served as Chief Minister for 31 days in 1984. |
| Key political event | He was associated with the 1984 August Coup in Andhra Pradesh politics. |
| Later political career | He served as Member of Parliament from Khammam in 1998 and joined the BJP in 2019. |
Banking and Finance – Daily Current Affairs April 23
5. What was the repo rate retained by the Reserve Bank of India after the April 8, 2026 Monetary Policy Committee meeting?
A) 4.75%
B) 5.00%
C) 5.25%
D) 5.50%
E) 6.00%
Answer: C) 5.25%.
Event and Location:
- Event: Reserve Bank of India kept the repo rate unchanged at 5.25% after the April 2026 Monetary Policy Committee meeting.
Mandates and Objectives:
- Mandates: The Monetary Policy Committee unanimously decided to maintain the repo rate at 5.25% and retain a neutral policy stance amid global economic uncertainty.
Important Terms Explained:
- Repo Rate: Repo rate is the interest rate at which the Reserve Bank of India lends short-term funds to commercial banks against government securities.
- Monetary Policy Committee: Monetary Policy Committee is the RBI-led committee responsible for deciding India’s key policy interest rates to maintain price stability and support growth.
- Neutral Stance: Neutral stance means the central bank is open to either raising or reducing interest rates depending on inflation, growth, and economic conditions.
- Supply-Side Shock: Supply-side shock refers to inflationary pressure caused by external supply disruptions such as crude oil price rise, commodity price increase, or trade disruptions.
- Core Inflation: Core inflation measures price rise excluding volatile items such as food and fuel, helping assess underlying inflation trends.
Tabular Summary:
| Parameter | Details |
| Event name | RBI Monetary Policy Committee decision. |
| Date | April 8, 2026. |
| Location | India. |
| Repo rate | The repo rate was kept unchanged at 5.25%. |
| Decision type | The decision was unanimous among all six MPC members. |
| Policy stance | RBI retained a neutral policy stance. |
| Key concern | Global uncertainty, especially West Asia tensions, influenced the decision. |
| Economic focus | RBI focused on balancing inflation control with economic growth. |
Business and Economy – Daily Current Affairs April 23
6. With reference to India’s textile exports in FY 2025–26, what was the total export value recorded during the year?
A) ₹2.96 lakh crore
B) ₹3.09 lakh crore
C) ₹3.16 lakh crore
D) ₹3.25 lakh crore
E) ₹3.50 lakh crore
Answer: C) ₹3.16 lakh crore.
Event and Location:
- Event: India’s textile exports grew by 2.1% to ₹3.16 lakh crore in FY 2025–26, including handicrafts.
Mandates and Objectives:
- Mandates: The textile export performance reflects growth across ready-made garments, cotton yarn, fabrics, handloom products, man-made textiles, and handicrafts, supported by export promotion schemes and trade agreements.
Important Terms Explained:
- Ready-Made Garments: Ready-made garments are finished apparel products prepared for direct sale and remained the largest contributor to India’s textile exports in FY 2025–26.
- RoSCTL: Rebate of State and Central Taxes and Levies is a government scheme that provides rebates on embedded state and central taxes to support textile and apparel exporters.
- RoDTEP: Remission of Duties and Taxes on Exported Products is a scheme that refunds certain duties and taxes not otherwise credited to exporters, improving export competitiveness.
- Free Trade Agreement: A free trade agreement is an arrangement between countries to reduce trade barriers such as tariffs and improve access to each other’s markets.
- TEPA: Trade and Economic Partnership Agreement is a trade framework aimed at improving economic cooperation, market access, and trade flows between partner countries.
Tabular Summary:
| Parameter | Details |
| Event name | India Textile Exports Growth 2025–26. |
| Date | April 23, 2026. |
| Location | India and more than 120 export destinations. |
| Total exports | India’s textile exports stood at ₹3,16,334.9 crore in FY 2025–26. |
| Previous year value | Textile exports stood at ₹3,09,859 crore in the previous financial year. |
| Growth rate | Overall textile exports increased by 2.1%. |
| Largest segment | Ready-made garments led exports with ₹1,39,349.6 crore and 2.9% growth. |
| Fastest-growing segment | Handicrafts grew by 6.1% to ₹15,855.1 crore. |
International Affairs – Daily Current Affairs April 23
7. Which country approved the Tobacco and Vapes Bill to ban tobacco sales to people born on or after January 1, 2009?
A) Canada
B) Australia
C) United Kingdom
D) New Zealand
E) Ireland
Answer: C) United Kingdom.
Event and Location:
- Event: Tobacco and Vapes Bill was approved to ban tobacco sales to people born on or after January 1, 2009.
Mandates and Objectives:
- Mandates: The UK Parliament approved the bill to introduce a generational tobacco ban and strengthen regulations on vaping and nicotine products.
Important Terms Explained:
- Tobacco and Vapes Bill: Tobacco and Vapes Bill is a UK legislation aimed at banning tobacco sales to people born on or after January 1, 2009 and regulating vaping products more strictly.
- Generational Ban: Generational ban means people born after a specified date will never be legally allowed to purchase tobacco products.
- Royal Assent: Royal Assent is the formal approval given by the monarch that allows a bill passed by Parliament to become law.
- Vaping: Vaping refers to the use of electronic devices that heat nicotine-containing or flavoured liquids to produce vapour for inhalation.
- National Health Service: National Health Service is the publicly funded healthcare system of the United Kingdom.
Tabular Summary:
| Parameter | Details |
| Event name | UK Tobacco and Vapes Bill approval. |
| Date | April 23, 2026. |
| Location | United Kingdom. |
| Approved by | UK Parliament. |
| Main provision | Tobacco sales will be banned for people born on or after January 1, 2009. |
| Legal status | The bill is pending Royal Assent to become law. |
| Vaping regulation | The bill proposes restrictions on flavours, packaging, advertising, and vaping in youth-sensitive areas. |
| Purpose / reason | To create a smoke-free generation and reduce smoking-related diseases. |
Schemes – Daily Current Affairs April 23
8. Which pension scheme crossed 9 crore total gross enrolments as of April 21, 2026?
A) Pradhan Mantri Shram Yogi Maandhan
B) National Pension System
C) Atal Pension Yojana
D) Employees’ Pension Scheme
E) Varishtha Pension Bima Yojana
Answer: C) Atal Pension Yojana.
Event and Location:
- Event: Atal Pension Yojana crossed 9 crore total gross enrolments as of April 21, 2026.
Mandates and Objectives:
- Mandates: The scheme provides a government-backed pension system for eligible Indian citizens through regular contributions until the age of 60.
Important Terms Explained:
- Atal Pension Yojana: Atal Pension Yojana is a government-backed pension scheme launched on May 9, 2015 to provide fixed monthly pensions to eligible Indian citizens after the age of 60.
- PFRDA: Pension Fund Regulatory and Development Authority is the regulatory body responsible for regulating, developing, and supervising pension schemes in India.
- Unorganized sector: The unorganized sector refers to workers who generally do not receive formal employment benefits such as pension, provident fund, paid leave, or structured retirement protection.
- Sampurna Suraksha Kavach: Sampurna Suraksha Kavach refers to the complete protection under APY, including pension to the subscriber, pension continuation to the spouse, and corpus return to the nominee.
- Regional Rural Banks: Regional Rural Banks are banking institutions that mainly provide financial services in rural and semi-urban areas.
Tabular Summary:
| Parameter | Details |
| Event name | Atal Pension Yojana enrolment milestone. |
| Date | April 21, 2026. |
| Location | India. |
| Total enrolments | Atal Pension Yojana crossed 9 crore total gross enrolments. |
| FY 2025–26 addition | Over 1.35 crore new subscribers joined the scheme in FY 2025–26. |
| Launch date | The scheme was launched on May 9, 2015. |
| Eligibility | Indian citizens aged 18 to 40 years who are not income tax payers are eligible. |
| Pension benefit | The scheme provides a guaranteed monthly pension of ₹1,000 to ₹5,000 after the age of 60. |
National Affairs – Daily Current Affairs April 23
9. Which ministry launched the ‘VM Frames’ National Filmmaking Competition to mark 150 years of Vande Mataram?
A) Ministry of Education
B) Ministry of Culture
C) Ministry of Information and Broadcasting
D) Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports
E) Ministry of Tourism
Answer: B) Ministry of Culture.
Event and Location:
- Event: VM Frames National Filmmaking Competition was launched to mark 150 years of Vande Mataram through visual storytelling.
Mandates and Objectives:
- Mandates: The Ministry of Culture launched the national filmmaking competition as part of the year-long nationwide celebration of 150 years of Vande Mataram.
Important Terms Explained:
- VM Frames: VM Frames is a national filmmaking competition launched by the Ministry of Culture to celebrate 150 years of Vande Mataram through creative visual storytelling.
- Vande Mataram: Vande Mataram is a patriotic song written by Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay that inspired India’s freedom struggle and represents devotion to the motherland.
- AI-Based Films: AI-based films are creative visual works made using artificial intelligence tools for storytelling, editing, visuals, or production support.
- Visual storytelling: Visual storytelling is the use of images, videos, films, or digital formats to communicate ideas, emotions, history, and cultural themes.
Tabular Summary:
| Parameter | Details |
| Event name | VM Frames National Filmmaking Competition. |
| Date | April 23, 2026. |
| Location | India and overseas participation by citizens. |
| Launching authority | Ministry of Culture, Government of India. |
| Occasion | 150 years of Vande Mataram. |
| Competition formats | Reels, AI-based films, and short films. |
| Submission deadline | May 7, 2026. |
| Purpose / reason | To promote patriotism, cultural identity, national unity, and storytelling around Vande Mataram. |
10. Which authority will be created under India’s new online gaming rules notified under PROGA 2025?
A) Digital Gaming Council of India
B) Online Gaming Authority of India
C) National E-Sports Regulation Board
D) Indian Digital Safety Authority
E) Gaming Compliance Commission
Answer: B) Online Gaming Authority of India.
Event and Location:
- Event: India’s new online gaming rules under PROGA 2025 will come into effect to regulate the online gaming sector.
Mandates and Objectives:
- Mandates: The Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology will notify the new rules under the Promotion and Regulation of Online Gaming Act 2025 to regulate online gaming platforms.
Important Terms Explained:
- PROGA 2025: Promotion and Regulation of Online Gaming Act 2025 is the legal framework introduced to regulate India’s online gaming sector and ensure safer gaming practices.
- Online Gaming Authority of India: Online Gaming Authority of India is the proposed central authority responsible for monitoring, compliance, registration, and grievance handling in the online gaming sector.
- Responsible gaming: Responsible gaming refers to safeguards and practices that prevent excessive spending, psychological harm, risky behaviour, and unsafe participation in online games.
- E-Sports: E-sports refers to organised competitive video gaming, often involving players, teams, tournaments, digital platforms, and financial transactions.
- MeitY: Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology is the ministry responsible for notifying and overseeing the implementation of India’s new online gaming rules.
Tabular Summary:
| Parameter | Details |
| Event name | India’s new online gaming rules under PROGA 2025. |
| Date | May 1, 2026. |
| Location | India. |
| Notifying authority | Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology. |
| Key regulatory body | Online Gaming Authority of India will be created. |
| Main focus | User safety, responsible gaming, transparency, and accountability. |
| Registration rule | Mandatory pre-registration will not apply to all online games. |
| Mandatory registration | E-sports platforms and certain gaming platforms must register with OGAI. |
11. Which organisation has started a major conservation project at the Konark Sun Temple to remove sand from the Jagamohan?
A) Indian National Trust for Art and Cultural Heritage
B) Archaeological Survey of India
C) Ministry of Tourism
D) National Monuments Authority
E) Odisha State Archaeology Department
Answer: B) Archaeological Survey of India.
Event and Location:
- Event: Archaeological Survey of India started a major conservation project at the Konark Sun Temple to remove sand from the Jagamohan.
Mandates and Objectives:
- Mandates: The Archaeological Survey of India has begun a scientific conservation operation involving controlled drilling and careful sand removal from the Jagamohan of the Konark Sun Temple.
Important Terms Explained:
- Konark Sun Temple: Konark Sun Temple is a 13th-century temple in Odisha built by Narasimhadeva I of the Eastern Ganga dynasty and designed as a giant chariot of the Sun God.
- Archaeological Survey of India: Archaeological Survey of India is the government agency responsible for archaeological research, conservation, and preservation of protected monuments in India.
- Jagamohan: Jagamohan refers to the assembly hall of the temple, which was filled with sand by British engineers between 1901 and 1903 to prevent collapse.
- UNESCO World Heritage Site: UNESCO World Heritage Site is a place recognised by UNESCO for its outstanding cultural, historical, scientific, or natural significance.
- Diamond drilling technology: Diamond drilling technology is a precise drilling method used to cut through hard structures with minimum vibration and reduced risk of damage.
Tabular Summary:
| Parameter | Details |
| Event name | ASI restoration project at Konark Sun Temple. |
| Date | April 23, 2026. |
| Location | Konark Sun Temple, Odisha. |
| Implementing agency | Archaeological Survey of India. |
| Temple status | Konark Sun Temple is a UNESCO World Heritage Site. |
| Key structure involved | The Jagamohan, or assembly hall, is being opened for sand removal. |
| Historical intervention | British engineers filled the Jagamohan with sand between 1901 and 1903. |
| Purpose / reason | To restore the structure, enable internal study, and ensure stability of the monument. |
12. Which city has been selected for the Safe Cities Project 2026 with an allocation of ₹10 crore for women’s safety and urban infrastructure?
A) Indore
B) Bhopal
C) Dhar
D) Ujjain
E) Gwalior
Answer: C) Dhar.
Event and Location:
- Event: Dhar was selected for the Safe Cities Project 2026 to improve women’s safety and urban infrastructure.
Mandates and Objectives:
- Mandates: The Ministry of Women and Child Development will lead the Safe Cities Project in Dhar with a dedicated allocation of ₹10 crore over five years.
Important Terms Explained:
- Safe Cities Project: Safe Cities Project is a central government initiative designed to enhance women’s safety in urban areas through infrastructure, surveillance, awareness, and safety reforms.
- Pink Toilets: Pink Toilets are women-friendly public toilet facilities designed to improve hygiene, accessibility, and safety for women in public spaces.
- CCTV Surveillance: CCTV surveillance refers to camera-based monitoring systems installed in public areas to improve safety, deterrence, and quick response to incidents.
- Gender Sensitization: Gender sensitization refers to awareness and training efforts that promote respect, equality, safety, and sensitivity towards women and gender-related issues.
Tabular Summary:
| Parameter | Details |
| Event name | Dhar selected for Safe Cities Project 2026. |
| Date | April 23, 2026. |
| Location | Dhar, Madhya Pradesh. |
| Lead ministry | Ministry of Women and Child Development. |
| Funding allocation | ₹10 crore has been allocated for the project. |
| Implementation period | The project will be implemented over five years. |
| Key measures | CCTV cameras, street lighting, monitoring systems, Pink Toilets, and women-friendly facilities. |
| Purpose / reason | To improve women’s safety, inclusive public spaces, urban infrastructure, and tourism potential. |
Over All Review
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Important Days
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Sports
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Obituary
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Banking and Finance
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Business and Economy
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International Affairs
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Schemes
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National Affairs
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