Daily Current Affairs October 22

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October 22 | Daily Current Affairs 2026

Business and Economy – Daily Current Affairs October 22

1. What was the year-on-year growth rate of India’s Index of Eight Core Industries (ICI) in September 2026?
A) 5.1%
B) 5.9%
C) 7.9%
D) 8.4%
E) 9.8%
Answer: C) 7.9%.

Event and Location:

• Event: India’s Index of Eight Core Industries (ICI) recorded 7.9% year-on-year (YoY) growth in September 2026, compared with the revised growth of 5.9% in August 2026.
• Location: India.
• Date: 22 October 2026.

Mandates and Objectives:

• Mandates: The Office of the Economic Adviser (OEA), under the Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade (DPIIT), Ministry of Commerce and Industry, compiles and releases the ICI to measure production performance in India’s core industrial sectors.
• Objectives: To monitor changes in industrial production, assess the performance of key infrastructure-related industries, and provide an early indication of overall industrial activity and economic growth.

Important Terms Explained:

• Index of Eight Core Industries (ICI): An economic indicator that measures production changes in eight major industries: coal, crude oil, natural gas, refinery products, fertilizers, steel, cement, and electricity.
• Year-on-Year (YoY) Growth: A statistical measure comparing the performance of an economic indicator during a particular period with the corresponding period of the previous year.
• Index of Industrial Production (IIP): An economic indicator that measures changes in industrial output across India’s mining, manufacturing, and electricity sectors and is compiled by the National Statistics Office (NSO).
• Cumulative Growth: The overall increase in an economic indicator over a specified period compared with the corresponding period of the previous year.
• Sectoral Weightage: The percentage importance assigned to an individual industry when calculating a composite index, determining its relative contribution to overall index movements.
• Base Year: A reference period used to calculate changes in an economic index, with the supplied September 2026 figures identifying 2022–23 as the base year.

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Awards – Daily Current Affairs October 22

2. Who presented the awards at the 65th National Exhibition of Art and 3rd Print Biennale India 2026 held in New Delhi?
A) Narendra Modi
B) Droupadi Murmu
C) Gajendra Singh Shekhawat
D) Jagdeep Dhankhar
E) Amit Shah
Answer: B) Droupadi Murmu.

Event and Location:

• Event: President Droupadi Murmu presented awards to outstanding artists at the 65th National Exhibition of Art and 3rd Print Biennale India 2026, organised by the Lalit Kala Akademi under the Ministry of Culture.
• Location: Dr. Ambedkar International Centre, New Delhi, India.
• Date: 21 October 2026.

Mandates and Objectives:

• Mandates: The Lalit Kala Akademi organised the 65th National Exhibition of Art and 3rd Print Biennale India 2026, featuring 6,175 artworks submitted by 2,495 artists from 27 states and Union Territories. A two-stage selection process shortlisted 270 artworks for exhibition and selected 20 artists for the Lalit Kala Akademi Awards, while President Murmu also felicitated the Grand Prize and Honourable Mention recipients of Print Biennale India.
• Objectives: To promote Indian visual arts and printmaking, recognise artistic excellence, encourage emerging and rural artists, preserve traditional art forms, support creative innovation, and increase public participation in India’s cultural and artistic heritage.

Important Terms Explained:

• Lalit Kala Akademi: India’s National Academy of Art, established in 1954 under the Ministry of Culture to promote and develop visual arts, including painting, sculpture, graphics, and other artistic disciplines.
• National Exhibition of Art: A national-level visual arts exhibition organised by Lalit Kala Akademi since 1955, with its first edition held at Jaipur House, New Delhi, displaying approximately 1,200 artworks.
• Lalit Kala Akademi Awards: National-level awards presented to selected artists for outstanding artistic contributions across different visual art forms, including painting, sculpture, printmaking, and drawing.
• Print Biennale India: A biennial international printmaking exhibition that provides a platform for Indian and international artists to display artworks, exchange techniques, and promote artistic collaboration.
• Printmaking: A visual art technique involving the transfer of images from a prepared plate, block, stone, or screen onto paper or another surface through methods such as etching, woodcut, lithography, and screen-printing.
• Biennale: An exhibition or cultural event organised once every two years, commonly associated with international art exhibitions and contemporary artistic practices.
• Gond Painting: A traditional tribal art form associated with the Gond communities of central India, known for its intricate patterns, vibrant colours, and depictions of nature, animals, and cultural traditions.

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3. Who was selected for the Karnataka Janapada Academy’s 2026 annual honorary award for contributions to traditional folk arts?
A) Vijay Kumar Sonare
B) Devadas Chimakode
C) Gopal Chandra Naskar
D) Sanjib Kumar Gogoi
E) Chandra Shekhar
Answer: B) Devadas Chimakode.

Event and Location:

• Event: Veteran folk artist Devadas Chimakode was selected for the Karnataka Janapada Academy Annual Honorary Award 2026 in recognition of his 35 years of contributions to preserving and promoting traditional folk art forms.
• Location: Chimakod village, Bidar taluk, Bidar district, Karnataka.
• Date: 21 October 2026.

Mandates and Objectives:

• Mandates: The Karnataka Janapada Academy announced its 2026 annual honorary award for 56-year-old folk artist Devadas Chimakode, recognising his contributions to folk singing, instrumental music, Suggi Kunitha, and Halage traditions. The award includes a cash prize of ₹25,000 and a citation.
• Objectives: To recognise outstanding contributions to Karnataka’s traditional folk arts, preserve regional cultural heritage, encourage rural folk artists, promote indigenous music and dance traditions, and support the transmission of traditional artistic knowledge to future generations.

Important Terms Explained:

• Karnataka Janapada Academy Award: An annual recognition presented by the Karnataka Janapada Academy to honour individuals who have made significant contributions to preserving, practising, and promoting Karnataka’s traditional folk arts.
• Karnataka Janapada Academy: A Karnataka state-level cultural institution dedicated to preserving, developing, documenting, and promoting folk literature, music, dance, and traditional performing arts.
• Folk Art: Traditional forms of artistic expression developed within communities and passed down through generations, reflecting local customs, beliefs, history, and cultural identity.
• Folk Singing: A traditional musical practice involving songs transmitted orally across generations, often associated with community celebrations, agricultural activities, rituals, and regional storytelling.
• Suggi Kunitha: A traditional folk dance of Karnataka associated with harvest celebrations, particularly among agricultural communities, featuring rhythmic movements, colourful costumes, and traditional music.
• Halage: A traditional percussion instrument and associated folk performance tradition of Karnataka, involving rhythmic drumming during cultural celebrations, processions, and community gatherings.
• Instrumental Folk Music: Traditional music performed using indigenous musical instruments, often accompanying regional dances, festivals, rituals, and other cultural performances.

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Science and Technology – Daily Current Affairs October 22

4. Which launch vehicle is scheduled to be used by ISRO to launch the NVS-03 navigation satellite on 30 October 2026?
A) PSLV-C62
B) LVM3
C) GSLV Mk II
D) SSLV
E) GSLV Mk III
Answer: C) GSLV Mk II.

Event and Location:

• Event: The Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) is scheduled to launch the NVS-03 navigation satellite aboard the Geosynchronous Satellite Launch Vehicle (GSLV) Mk II to strengthen India’s indigenous satellite navigation system, Navigation with Indian Constellation (NavIC).
• Location: Satish Dhawan Space Centre, Sriharikota, Andhra Pradesh, India.
• Date: 30 October 2026 (scheduled launch).

Mandates and Objectives:

• Mandates: ISRO plans to launch NVS-03 as part of its second-generation NavIC satellite programme, comprising five satellites designated NVS-01 to NVS-05. The mission aims to address operational limitations caused by ageing satellites, satellite failures, and onboard atomic clock malfunctions. According to the Department of Space’s parliamentary response on 29 July 2026, only three satellites—IRNSS-1B, IRNSS-1I, and NVS-01—were providing positioning, navigation, and timing services.
• Objectives: To improve the reliability, accuracy, and continuity of India’s indigenous satellite navigation services, restore sufficient operational satellite availability for independent positioning, strengthen domestic navigation infrastructure, and support applications such as vehicle tracking, fleet management, disaster management, maritime navigation, aviation, and precise timing.

Important Terms Explained:

• NVS-03: A second-generation Indian navigation satellite belonging to ISRO’s NVS-01 to NVS-05 series, designed to improve the performance and service continuity of the NavIC satellite navigation system.
• NavIC: India’s indigenous regional satellite navigation system that provides positioning, navigation, and timing services across India and approximately 1,500 kilometres beyond its borders.
• GSLV Mk II: An Indian satellite launch vehicle equipped with a cryogenic upper stage, designed to place satellites into geosynchronous transfer orbits and support communication and navigation satellite missions.
• Satish Dhawan Space Centre (SDSC): India’s primary spaceport located at Sriharikota in Andhra Pradesh, used by ISRO for launching satellites aboard PSLV, GSLV, and other launch vehicles.
• Positioning, Navigation and Timing (PNT): Satellite-based services that determine geographical location, support navigation and movement, and provide accurate time references for communication networks and other applications.
• Standard Positioning Service (SPS): The openly available NavIC service designed to provide positioning and navigation information to civilian and general users.
• Restricted Service (RS): An encrypted NavIC navigation service intended for authorised users requiring controlled access to positioning and timing information.
• Atomic Clock: A highly precise timekeeping device that uses atomic frequency standards to maintain accurate timing, enabling navigation receivers to calculate distances from satellites and determine geographical positions.
• Indian Regional Navigation Satellite System (IRNSS): The original name of India’s indigenous regional satellite navigation programme, subsequently renamed NavIC.
• Space Applications Centre (SAC): An ISRO centre involved in developing space-based applications and satellite payload technologies, including navigation-related timing and monitoring systems.

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Defence – Daily Current Affairs October 22

5. Where was the 9th edition of the trilateral maritime exercise IBSAMAR IX 2026, involving India, Brazil, and South Africa, concluded?
A) Rio de Janeiro, Brazil
B) Mumbai, India
C) Simon’s Town, South Africa
D) Cape Town, South Africa
E) Visakhapatnam, India
Answer: C) Simon’s Town, South Africa.

Event and Location:

• Event: The 9th edition of the India-Brazil-South Africa Maritime Exercise (IBSAMAR IX 2026) concluded successfully after ten days of joint naval activities involving the three countries.
• Location: Simon’s Town, South Africa.
• Date: 20 October 2026, with the completion announced by India’s Ministry of Defence on 21 October 2026.

Mandates and Objectives:

• Mandates: The Indian Navy, Brazilian Navy, and South African Navy conducted the trilateral maritime exercise IBSAMAR IX 2026, comprising harbour and sea phases, professional exchanges, and joint naval training activities to strengthen maritime cooperation.
• Objectives: To enhance interoperability, improve operational coordination, strengthen mutual understanding, promote maritime security, and develop collective capabilities to address common maritime challenges.

Important Terms Explained:

• IBSAMAR: A trilateral maritime exercise involving India, Brazil, and South Africa, conducted under the IBSA cooperation framework to enhance naval interoperability and maritime security, with its first edition held in South Africa in 2008.
• IBSA Dialogue Forum: A trilateral cooperation platform established in 2003 involving India, Brazil, and South Africa to promote South-South cooperation, political dialogue, economic development, and collaboration in areas including maritime security.
• INS Tarkash: A frontline guided-missile stealth frigate of the Indian Navy that participated in IBSAMAR IX 2026 along with an integral Chetak helicopter.
• Harbour Phase: The initial phase of a naval exercise involving professional exchanges, operational planning, coordination meetings, and training activities conducted while ships are in port.
• Sea Phase: The operational phase of a naval exercise involving practical maritime manoeuvres, coordinated naval operations, and warfare training at sea.
• Anti-Submarine Warfare (ASW): Naval operations aimed at detecting, tracking, and countering hostile submarines to protect ships and maintain maritime security.
• Visit, Board, Search and Seizure (VBSS): Maritime security procedures used by naval forces to approach, board, inspect, and, when legally authorised, seize vessels suspected of unlawful activities.

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6. Where did the 33rd edition of the Singapore-India Maritime Bilateral Exercise (SIMBEX-2026) commence on 21 October 2026?
A) Kochi, Kerala
B) Mumbai, Maharashtra
C) Visakhapatnam, Andhra Pradesh
D) Chennai, Tamil Nadu
E) Port Blair, Andaman and Nicobar Islands
Answer: C) Visakhapatnam, Andhra Pradesh.

Event and Location:

• Event: The 33rd Singapore-India Maritime Bilateral Exercise (SIMBEX-2026) commenced between the Indian Navy and the Republic of Singapore Navy (RSN) to strengthen bilateral naval cooperation and operational coordination.
• Location: Visakhapatnam, Andhra Pradesh, for the harbour phase and the Bay of Bengal for the sea phase.
• Date: 21–26 October 2026.

Mandates and Objectives:

• Mandates: The bilateral maritime exercise is being conducted in two phases, with the Harbour Phase scheduled from 21–23 October 2026 and the Sea Phase from 24–26 October 2026. The exercise involves professional exchanges, cross-deck visits, operational planning, and advanced naval warfare drills, including anti-submarine, anti-surface, and anti-air warfare operations. Singapore’s RSS Supreme and Indian naval ships INS Nilgiri and INS Kamorta are associated with the exercise.
• Objectives: To enhance operational interoperability between the Indian and Singapore navies, strengthen maritime security cooperation, improve joint warfare capabilities, develop coordination in naval operations, and promote peace, stability, and a rules-based maritime order in the Indo-Pacific region.

Important Terms Explained:

• SIMBEX: The Singapore-India Maritime Bilateral Exercise is an annual bilateral naval exercise between India and Singapore, initiated in 1994 as Exercise Lion King to strengthen maritime cooperation and operational compatibility.
• Harbour Phase: The initial stage of a naval exercise conducted at a port, involving professional discussions, operational planning, subject matter expert exchanges, cross-deck visits, and interactions between participating naval personnel.
• Sea Phase: The operational stage of a maritime exercise conducted at sea, involving coordinated naval manoeuvres, warfare simulations, ship-handling drills, and tactical operations.
• Subject Matter Expert Exchanges (SMEEs): Professional interactions between specialists from participating navies to share technical knowledge, operational experience, tactics, and best practices.
• Anti-Submarine Warfare (ASW): Naval operations designed to detect, track, deter, and counter hostile submarines using warships, aircraft, sensors, and underwater detection systems.
• Anti-Surface Warfare (ASUW): Naval operations focused on detecting, tracking, and engaging hostile surface vessels to protect maritime assets and maintain control of sea areas.
• Anti-Air Warfare (AAW): Naval defensive and offensive operations intended to detect, intercept, and counter airborne threats, including hostile aircraft, missiles, and unmanned aerial systems.
• Seamanship Evolutions: Practical naval exercises involving ship handling, navigation, coordinated manoeuvring, and operational procedures to improve maritime efficiency and crew coordination.
• Indo-Pacific Region: A strategically significant maritime region connecting the Indian and Pacific Oceans, important for international trade, naval security, regional cooperation, and freedom of navigation.

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National Affairs – Daily Current Affairs October 22

7. Which ministry formed a special task force in October 2026 to investigate the leakage of private cryptographic keys associated with eMudhra’s digital certificates?
A) Ministry of Home Affairs
B) Ministry of Communications
C) Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology
D) Ministry of Science and Technology
E) Ministry of Corporate Affairs
Answer: C) Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology.

Event and Location:

• Event: The Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY) constituted a special task force to investigate the compromise of private cryptographic keys associated with eight eMudhra intermediate Certificate Authority (CA) certificates.
• Location: Bengaluru, Karnataka, India, where eMudhra is headquartered.
• Date: 22 October 2026.

Mandates and Objectives:

• Mandates: MeitY formed a dedicated task force to investigate the digital certificate security breach, while the Indian Computer Emergency Response Team (CERT-In) issued a cybersecurity advisory on 21 October 2026 highlighting weaknesses in cryptographic key generation and potential security threats.
• Objectives: To investigate the compromised private keys, identify weaknesses in the key-generation process, coordinate cybersecurity responses, prevent fraudulent certificate issuance, and protect secure online communications from website impersonation and cyberattacks.

Important Terms Explained:

• eMudhra: A Bengaluru-based digital trust services company that provides digital certificates, digital signatures, and electronic authentication services.
• Digital Certificate: An electronic credential that links a verified identity, such as a website domain, with a public cryptographic key to enable authentication and secure communication.
• Certificate Authority (CA): A trusted entity responsible for issuing and digitally signing certificates to verify the authenticity of websites and other digital identities.
• Intermediate Certificate Authority: A certificate authority operating under a trusted root CA that can issue or sign certificates within an established chain of trust.
• Cryptographic Entropy: The randomness and unpredictability used in generating cryptographic keys, where insufficient entropy can make private keys vulnerable to recovery or prediction.
• Transport Layer Security (TLS): A cryptographic protocol that provides encryption, authentication, and data integrity for secure internet communications, including HTTPS connections.
• Web Public Key Infrastructure (WebPKI): A system of trusted certificate authorities, certificates, and validation mechanisms used by web browsers and operating systems to authenticate websites.
• Man-in-the-Middle (MitM) Attack: A cyberattack in which an attacker secretly intercepts or modifies communication between two parties, potentially using forged certificates to impersonate legitimate websites.
• CERT-In: India’s national cybersecurity incident-response agency operating under MeitY, responsible for issuing security advisories, analyzing cyber threats, and coordinating incident responses.
• Controller of Certifying Authorities (CCA): A statutory authority under MeitY that regulates certifying authorities issuing digital signature certificates under the Information Technology Act, 2000.

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8. What is the maximum initial testing period allowed under the Telecommunications (Regulatory Sandbox) Rules, 2026, notified by the Government of India?
A) 6 months
B) 12 months
C) 18 months
D) 24 months
E) 36 months
Answer: D) 24 months.

Event and Location:

• Event: The Department of Telecommunications (DoT) under the Ministry of Communications notified the Telecommunications (Regulatory Sandbox) Rules, 2026, allowing controlled testing of emerging telecom technologies, services, products, processes, and business models with specified regulatory exemptions.
• Location: India.
• Date: 21 October 2026.

Mandates and Objectives:

• Mandates: The Central Government introduced a regulatory framework under Section 27 of the Telecommunications Act, 2023, permitting eligible applicants to test innovative telecom solutions in controlled environments. The rules prescribe a non-refundable application fee of ₹10,000, a maximum initial testing period of 24 months, extensions of up to 12 months at a time, and temporary exemptions from specified provisions of telecom regulations, subject to government approval and monitoring.
• Objectives: To encourage innovation and technological development in India’s telecommunications sector, facilitate real-world testing before commercial deployment, reduce regulatory barriers for emerging technologies, ensure user safety and data protection, and maintain the security and integrity of telecommunications networks.

Important Terms Explained:

• Regulatory Sandbox: A controlled testing environment that allows eligible entities to experiment with innovative products, services, technologies, or business models under regulatory supervision and specified temporary exemptions.
• Telecommunications Act, 2023: An Indian law governing telecommunications services, networks, spectrum, and related activities, with Section 27 enabling the Central Government to establish regulatory sandboxes for technological innovation.
• Telecommunications (Regulatory Sandbox) Rules, 2026: Rules establishing procedures for creating, approving, operating, monitoring, extending, and closing regulatory sandboxes for emerging telecommunications technologies and services.
• Regulatory Exemptions: Temporary relaxations from specified legal or regulatory requirements granted to approved sandbox participants for controlled testing, subject to prescribed conditions and safeguards.
• Telecom Regulatory Authority of India (TRAI) Act, 1997: The legislation establishing the Telecom Regulatory Authority of India and providing the framework for regulating telecommunications services and protecting consumer interests.
• Informed Consent: The voluntary agreement of a test participant after receiving sufficient information about the purpose, scope, conditions, and potential risks of the proposed testing activity.
• Data Protection: Legal and technical measures designed to safeguard personal information against unauthorised access, misuse, disclosure, and security breaches during testing activities.
• Research and Development (R&D) Institutions: Organisations engaged in scientific research and technological innovation, including institutions recognised by the Department of Science and Technology that are eligible to propose telecom regulatory sandboxes.
• Commercial Deployment: The introduction of a tested technology, product, or service into the market for regular public or business use after obtaining all necessary regulatory approvals and authorisations.

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9. From which month and year is India proposing to make Advanced Emergency Braking Systems (AEBS) mandatory in new car models?
A) October 2027
B) October 2028
C) October 2029
D) October 2030
E) October 2032
Answer: D) October 2030.

Event and Location:

• Event: The Ministry of Road Transport and Highways (MoRTH) is considering making Advanced Emergency Braking Systems (AEBS) mandatory in new passenger car models from October 2030 and existing car models from October 2032 to improve road safety.
• Location: India.
• Date: 22 October 2026 (reported proposal), with proposed implementation from October 2030 and October 2032.

Mandates and Objectives:

• Mandates: The Ministry of Road Transport and Highways, headed by Union Minister Nitin Gadkari, is considering a phased introduction of AEBS requirements under a broader vehicle safety initiative involving Advanced Driver Assistance Systems (ADAS). The proposal covers new passenger car models from October 2030 and existing models under production from October 2032. Additional safety technologies, including emergency lane keeping and driver fatigue monitoring, are also being considered for passenger transport vehicles. The proposed AEBS requirements for passenger cars have not yet been officially notified.
• Objectives: To reduce road accidents and collision-related injuries, improve vehicle safety through automatic braking and collision detection, enhance driver awareness, protect vulnerable road users, and provide automobile manufacturers sufficient time to integrate advanced safety technologies into passenger vehicles.

Important Terms Explained:

• Advanced Emergency Braking System (AEBS): An active vehicle safety technology that uses cameras, radar, or other sensors to detect potential collisions and automatically applies the brakes when the driver fails to respond adequately.
• Advanced Driver Assistance Systems (ADAS): A collection of electronic vehicle safety technologies that assist drivers through warnings, monitoring systems, and automated braking or steering interventions to reduce accident risks.
• Automatic Emergency Braking (AEB): A safety feature that automatically activates the vehicle’s brakes when an imminent collision is detected, helping prevent accidents or reduce their severity.
• Lane Departure Warning System (LDWS): A driver assistance feature that alerts the driver when a vehicle unintentionally moves outside its designated traffic lane.
• Emergency Lane Keeping System (ELKS): An advanced safety system that helps prevent unintended lane departures by providing corrective steering assistance or other interventions.
• Blind Spot Information System (BSIS): A vehicle safety system that detects and warns drivers about vehicles or vulnerable road users located in areas not easily visible through mirrors.
• Driver Drowsiness and Attention Warning System (DDAWS): A driver monitoring technology that identifies signs of fatigue or reduced attentiveness and provides warnings to help prevent accidents.
• Moving Off Information System (MOIS): A safety technology that detects pedestrians, cyclists, or other vulnerable road users near the front of a vehicle when it begins moving.
• Active Vehicle Safety System: A technology designed to prevent accidents by identifying hazards and assisting with braking, steering, or vehicle control before a collision occurs.

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