Daily Current Affairs June 26

Dear Champions, as you all know that a lot of competitive exams have been notified consequently. Candidates have to prepare themselves according to the level of competition and expectation of the Recruitment board. Regarding that one of the most important topic is Daily Current Affairs June 26. Current Affairs in the form of contemporary events of national & international play a crucial role in almost every competitive exams like Banking, Insurance, SSC, UPSC, TNPSC, Railway etc.

Current affairs are the most dynamic yet scoring among all sections and need to be prepared from the right source. Here, we cafunsta team, providing Daily GK Updates, Current Affairs Questions, and Monthly current affairs pdf.

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June 26 | Daily Current Affairs 2025

Important Days – Daily Current Affairs June 26

1. What is the theme for International Day Against Drug Abuse and Illicit Trafficking 2025?
A) Listen First – Listening to children and youth
B) Health for Justice. Justice for Health
C) Break the Cycle. #StopOrganizedCrime
D) Share Facts on Drugs, Save Lives
E) Building Resilience, Preventing Drug Use
Answer: C) Break the Cycle. #StopOrganizedCrime

Event and Location:

• Event: Observation of International Day Against Drug Abuse and Illicit Trafficking 2025
• Location: Global (United Nations observance)
• Date: June 26, 2025

Mandates and Objectives:

• Mandates:
  • To observe World Drug Day 2025, themed “Break the Cycle. #StopOrganizedCrime”, focusing on awareness, education, and action against drug abuse and organized crime.
• Objectives:
  • To raise global awareness about the harms of drug abuse, highlight the role of organized crime, and promote community-level and systemic solutions like education, mental health support, and policy reform.

Important Terms Explained:

• International Day Against Drug Abuse and Illicit Trafficking:
  • A United Nations-recognized observance held on June 26 every year to strengthen global action and cooperation to achieve a drug-free society.
• Organized Crime:
  • Structured groups engaging in illegal activities such as drug trafficking, exploiting vulnerable communities, and disrupting social stability and governance.
• SAFER Initiative:
  • A World Health Organization (WHO) program designed to help countries reduce the harm caused by substance use through evidence-based policy measures.

Tabular Summary:

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2. What major initiative was launched by MEA on Passport Seva Divas 2025?
A) Pravasi Bharatiya Divas Scheme
B) Digital Visa Facility
C) Passport Seva Programme (PSP) Version 2.0
D) Global E-Visa Portal
E) Travel Safe India Campaign
Answer: C) Passport Seva Programme (PSP) Version 2.0

Event and Location:

• Event: 13th Passport Seva Divas & launch of PSP 2.0 and e-passports
• Location: New Delhi, India
• Date: June 24, 2025

Mandates and Objectives:

• Mandates:
  • The Ministry of External Affairs launched the Passport Seva Programme (PSP) Version 2.0, rolled out e-passports, and upgraded the m Passport Police App.
• Objectives:
  • To enhance citizen-centric passport services using cloud-native infrastructure, artificial intelligence (AI), and automation; to reduce processing time and improve security and user experience.

Important Terms Explained:

• Passport Seva Programme (PSP) Version 2.0:
  • An upgraded national passport delivery platform that uses AI and cloud-native technologies to offer real-time service monitoring, better data exchange, and smoother application processes.
• e-passports:
  • Advanced passports equipped with RFID and contactless chips to allow secure and faster immigration clearance.
• m Passport Police App:
  • A mobile application launched to reduce police verification time from 15–20 days to 5–7 days using tech-enabled data collection and monitoring.

Tabular Summary:

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3. What was the primary purpose of observing ‘Samvidhan Hatya Divas’ across India in June 2025?
A) To promote digital awareness among youth
B) To mark the 75th Independence Day
C) To commemorate the 50th anniversary of the 1975 Emergency
D) To celebrate Constitution Day
E) To launch constitutional literacy campaign
Answer: C) To commemorate the 50th anniversary of the 1975 Emergency

Event and Location:

• Event: Observance of ‘Samvidhan Hatya Divas’ across India
• Location: Nationwide, with key events in Punjab, Goa, Arunachal Pradesh, Maharashtra, Haryana, Sikkim, and Nagaland
• Date: June 25, 2025

Mandates and Objectives:

• Mandates:
  • To organize state and national level programs to mark the 50th anniversary of the proclamation of Emergency in 1975 through rallies, speeches, and tribute events.
• Objectives:
  • To remind citizens, especially youth, of the constitutional violations during the Emergency, and to uphold democratic values, constitutional integrity, and prevent misuse of power in future.

Important Terms Explained:

• Emergency (1975):
  • A 21-month period from June 25, 1975, to March 21, 1977, when Prime Minister Indira Gandhi declared a state of internal emergency in India, suspending civil liberties and democratic processes.
• Samvidhan Hatya Divas:
  • Translated as “Constitution Murder Day”, it is a commemorative event observed in 2025 to highlight the constitutional breakdown during the Emergency period.
• Satyagrahi:
  • A person who practices Satyagraha, a form of non-violent resistance or civil disobedience. During the Emergency, many such individuals were imprisoned for standing up for democracy.

Tabular Summary:

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4. What is the theme of World Vitiligo Day 2025?
A) Skin Equality Through Care
B) Melanin Matters Movement
C) Innovation for Every Skin Powered by AI
D) White is Beautiful Campaign
E) Healing Skin, Healing Minds
Answer: C) Innovation for Every Skin Powered by AI

Event and Location:

• Event: World Vitiligo Day 2025 observance and awareness campaign
• Location: Globally observed, led by dermatology organizations
• Date: June 25, 2025

Mandates and Objectives:

• Mandates: Global awareness campaign highlighting advances in vitiligo research, diagnosis, and treatment; release of new data and completion of clinical trial milestones.
• Objectives: To debunk myths, reduce social stigma, promote AI-based medical solutions, and encourage timely intervention and care for vitiligo patients.

Important Terms Explained:

• Vitiligo: An autoimmune skin disorder that leads to the destruction of melanocytes, resulting in white patches on the skin and hair.
• Repibresib (VYN201): A topical gel in Phase 2b trials by VYNE Therapeutics for treating nonsegmental vitiligo, with results expected mid-2025.
• Artificial Intelligence (AI): Emerging as a diagnostic tool using CNN (Convolutional Neural Networks) and ANN (Artificial Neural Networks) for improved detection and classification of vitiligo.
• Excimer Laser (308-nm): A targeted UVB light therapy approved by the FDA for localized vitiligo treatment.
• Afamelanotide (Scenesse): A systemic therapy under Phase III trial (CUV105) by Clinuvel Pharmaceuticals for treating vitiligo.

Tabular Summary:

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5. What is the theme for the UN International Day in Support of Victims of Torture 2025?
A) Justice for All
B) Healing the Invisible Wounds
C) Torture: a crime against humanity
D) End Torture Now
E) Human Rights for Survivors
Answer: C) Torture: a crime against humanity

Event and Location:

• Event: UN International Day in Support of Victims of Torture 2025 observed globally
• Location: Worldwide
• Date: June 26, 2025

Mandates and Objectives:

• Mandates: To commemorate the enforcement of the UN Convention Against Torture (UNCAT), honor survivors, and call for a global commitment to eradicate torture.
• Objectives: To promote awareness, ensure justice and rehabilitation for victims, and pressure governments to implement anti-torture legislation and mechanisms.

Important Terms Explained:

• UNCAT (United Nations Convention Against Torture): An international human rights treaty adopted in 1984 and enforced in 1987, which prohibits torture and obligates states to prevent such acts.
• Torture: Defined under Article 1 of UNCAT as intentional infliction of severe physical or mental pain for coercive purposes by or with consent of a public official.
• Prevention of Torture Bill (India): A proposed bill aiming to criminalize custodial torture in India, recommended by Law Commission (2017) and reintroduced in 2023 to bridge the legislative gap.

Tabular Summary:

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Sports – Daily Current Affairs June 26

6. What is the primary aim of the Top National Players Stipend Scheme (TNPSS) launched by AICF?
A) To fund construction of chess stadiums across India
B) To provide pension to retired chess players
C) To offer financial support to young chess talents in India
D) To train chess coaches in rural areas
E) To sponsor Indian players for international tournaments only
Answer: C) To offer financial support to young chess talents in India

Event and Location:

• Event: Launch of Top National Players Stipend Scheme (TNPSS)
• Location: Chennai, Tamil Nadu (AICF Headquarters)
• Date: 25 June 2025

Mandates and Objectives:

• Mandates: The All India Chess Federation (AICF) launched the TNPSS to provide structured financial assistance to young chess players in the Under-7 to Under-19 categories.
• Objectives:
  • To empower India’s young chess talent through quarterly stipends.
  • To encourage grassroots participation by rewarding consistent national-level performers.
  • To reduce financial burdens and promote preparation for global chess competitions.
  • To build a strong pipeline of future international chess champions from India.

Important Terms Explained:

• Top National Players Stipend Scheme (TNPSS):
  • A monthly stipend initiative launched by AICF for young chess players (U-7 to U-19), offering direct financial support based on national-level performance.
• All India Chess Federation (AICF):
  • The apex governing body of chess in India, responsible for organizing national tournaments, talent promotion, and international representation.
• FIDE (Fédération Internationale des Échecs):
  • The World Chess Federation, based in Switzerland, which governs international chess competition and rankings. AICF is affiliated with FIDE.

Tabular Summary:

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Ranking – Daily Current Affairs June 26

7. According to the WMO’s State of the Climate in Asia 2024 report, how does Asia’s warming rate compare to the global average?
A) Half the global average
B) Equal to the global average
C) Slightly below the global average
D) Twice the global average
E) Three times the global average
Answer: D) Twice the global average

Event and Location:

• Event: Release of State of the Climate in Asia 2024 report by WMO
• Location: Asia (regional impact assessment)
• Date: June 2025

Mandates and Objectives:

• Mandates: The World Meteorological Organization (WMO) published its State of the Climate in Asia 2024 report, highlighting the region’s record-breaking heat, sea-level rise, and extreme weather events.
• Objectives: To raise global awareness about the accelerated impacts of climate change in Asia, urge policymakers to take immediate climate action, and assess the socio-economic and environmental losses driven by warming, glacial loss, floods, and storms.

Important Terms Explained:

• WMO (World Meteorological Organization): A specialized UN agency for meteorology (weather and climate), hydrology, and related geophysical sciences. It provides authoritative climate data and trends for policy and preparedness.
• Glacial Lake Outburst Floods (GLOFs): Sudden discharges of water from glacial lakes due to glacier melting, often triggered by ice or landslides, posing major threats to Himalayan and highland communities.
• Marine Heatwaves: Periods of abnormally high sea surface temperatures lasting days to months, which severely impact marine biodiversity and contribute to coral bleaching and fish stock decline.
• State of the Climate Report: An annual report by WMO providing evidence-based assessments of climate trends and extremes across regions, used to inform adaptation and mitigation strategies.

Tabular Summary:

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8. Which Indian brand topped the India 100 Ranking 2025 by Brand Finance in terms of brand value?
A) Infosys Limited
B) HDFC Group
C) Tata Group
D) LIC
E) Reliance Industries Limited
Answer: C) Tata Group

Event and Location:

• Event: Release of India 100 Ranking 2025 by Brand Finance
• Location: London, United Kingdom (Global HQ), India (Brand Focus)
• Date: 25 June 2025

Mandates and Objectives:

• Mandates: Brand Finance released its annual India 100 Ranking 2025, measuring the brand value and strength of the top Indian brands based on financial performance, marketing, stakeholder perception, and sustainability.
• Objectives:
  • To evaluate and rank India’s strongest and most valuable brands
  • Promote brand transparency and strategic benchmarking
  • Highlight top performers in sustainability and emerging brand segments

Top 5 Most Valuable Indian Brands – 2025:

Top 5 Strongest Indian Brands – 2025:

Important Terms Explained:

• Brand Strength Index (BSI): A metric that evaluates marketing investment, stakeholder equity, and business performance on a 0–100 scale.
• Sustainability Perceptions Index (SPeX): Measures the gap between perceived and actual sustainability performance of brands, using data from the Global Brand Equity Monitor (GBEM).
• Royalty Relief Approach: A method used to value brands by estimating the future revenue that brand owners would have to pay for using their brand if they didn’t own it.

Tabular Summary:

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Banking and Finance – Daily Current Affairs June 26

9. What is the main goal of the RBI-led Digital Payment Intelligence Platform (DPIP)?
A) To replace UPI with a new payment system
B) To enable offline payments in rural areas
C) To prevent digital frauds through real-time intelligence sharing
D) To launch new credit scoring standards
E) To create a digital currency exchange
Answer: C) To prevent digital frauds through real-time intelligence sharing

Event and Location:

• Event: Development of Digital Payment Intelligence Platform (DPIP) to combat digital frauds
• Location: Nationwide (India-wide banking collaboration under RBI supervision)
• Date: 22 June 2025

Mandates and Objectives:

• Mandates: The Reserve Bank of India (RBI), in collaboration with major public and private sector banks, is building a Digital Public Infrastructure (DPI) called DPIP to strengthen fraud detection and risk management in digital payments.
• Objectives: To enable real-time intelligence sharing among banks and financial institutions for early fraud detection, prevention of fraudulent transactions, and enhancement of trust and security in the digital payments ecosystem.

Important Terms Explained:

• Digital Payment Intelligence Platform (DPIP): A proposed real-time, AI-powered infrastructure for sharing fraud-related data and preventing digital payment scams. It is being developed by RBI Innovation Hub (RBIH) with the support of banks.
• Digital Public Infrastructure (DPI): A framework of interoperable systems built for the public good; in this case, used to build trust, transparency, and efficiency in digital payments by detecting and mitigating risks collaboratively.
• RBI Innovation Hub (RBIH): A wholly owned subsidiary of the RBI tasked with fostering innovation in the financial sector; responsible for building the DPIP prototype in consultation with 5–10 banks.
• A P Hota Committee: Formed by RBI in June 2024 and chaired by the former MD & CEO of NPCI, the committee was tasked with examining aspects of building the DPIP ecosystem.

Tabular Summary:

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10. What was the reported FY25 standalone surplus (net profit) of NPCI, as per ICRA’s provisional data?
A) ₹1,095 crore
B) ₹1,200 crore
C) ₹3,270 crore
D) ₹1,552 crore
E) ₹2,749 crore
Answer: D) ₹1,552 crore

Event and Location:

• Event: NPCI’s standalone FY25 financials report major growth in surplus and revenue
• Location: Mumbai, India (NPCI Headquarters)
• Date: 25 June 2025

Mandates and Objectives:

• Mandates: The National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI) recorded a 42% rise in surplus (profit) and 19% revenue growth in FY25, according to ICRA’s unaudited provisional data.
• Objectives: To reflect NPCI’s financial performance amid India’s rapidly growing digital payments ecosystem, while reinforcing the operational scale of platforms like UPI, RuPay, and IMPS.

Important Terms Explained:

• Surplus (NPCI): As a not-for-profit organisation, NPCI reports net profit as ‘surplus’ in financial statements. It operates primarily to provide payment infrastructure rather than generate commercial profits.
• UPI (Unified Payments Interface): NPCI’s flagship instant payment system facilitating peer-to-peer and merchant transactions. UPI processes over 600–650 million daily transactions, dominating India’s digital payments space.
• MDR (Merchant Discount Rate): A fee charged to merchants for processing digital payments. Fintechs seek MDR to sustain UPI services, but the government has maintained zero MDR to promote adoption.
• NPCI Subsidiaries:
  • NIPL (NPCI International Payments Ltd): Expands UPI and RuPay globally.
  • NBBL (NPCI Bharat BillPay Ltd): Centralised bill payment infrastructure across India.

Tabular Summary:

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Business and Economy – Daily Current Affairs June 26

11. When is the new GDP series with revised base year expected to be released, according to the Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation (MoSPI)?
A) April 2025
B) January 2026
C) February 2026
D) February 2027
E) April 2024
Answer: C) February 2026

Event and Location:

• Event: Announcement of revised base years for GDP, IIP, and CPI datasets
• Location: New Delhi, India
• Date: 22 June 2025

Mandates and Objectives:

• Mandates: The Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation (MoSPI) announced new base years for GDP, Index of Industrial Production (IIP), and Consumer Price Index (CPI) to align with changing economic structures and improve accuracy.
• Objectives: To enhance the relevance, timeliness, and comparability of key economic indicators through revised base years and improved methodologies, and to incorporate newer consumption patterns and production dynamics into national statistical systems.

Important Terms Explained:

• Gross Domestic Product (GDP): The total monetary value of all goods and services produced within a country during a specific period; used to assess economic performance. The new GDP base year will be FY 2022-23, and data with this base will be released on February 27, 2026.
• Index of Industrial Production (IIP): A measure of the industrial activity and output across sectors like mining, manufacturing, and electricity. The revised base year identified is FY 2022-23, with data on the new base expected from FY 2026-27.
• Consumer Price Index (CPI): Measures retail inflation by tracking changes in prices of a basket of goods and services. The new base year will be 2024, and weights will be derived from HCES 2023-24, not 2022-23 as previously planned.
• Household Consumption and Expenditure Survey (HCES): A national survey that captures consumption patterns and spending behavior of households, crucial for updating weights in CPI.

Tabular Summary:

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12. Why did IRDAI impose a ₹1 crore penalty on Edelweiss Life Insurance in June 2025?
A) Delay in claim settlements
B) Breach of investment limits
C) Violation of corporate governance norms
D) Non-payment of GST dues
E) Misleading advertising practices
Answer: C) Violation of corporate governance norms

Event and Location:

• Event: IRDAI imposes ₹1 crore penalty on Edelweiss Life Insurance
• Location: Hyderabad, India
• Date: 24 June 2025

Mandates and Objectives:

• Mandates:
  • IRDAI issued a financial penalty of ₹1 crore and directed Edelweiss Life Insurance to comply with regulatory guidelines related to outsourcing and corporate governance.
• Objectives:
  • To ensure accountability and adherence to prescribed corporate governance and outsourcing norms under IRDAI regulations, thereby protecting policyholder interests.

Important Terms Explained:

• IRDAI (Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority of India):
  • A statutory body formed under the IRDA Act, 1999, that regulates and promotes the insurance and reinsurance industry in India.
• Corporate Governance Norms:
  • Regulatory frameworks and ethical standards insurers must adhere to, ensuring transparency, accountability, and compliance in business operations.
• Outsourcing Policy:
  • A formal document that outlines how a company engages external service providers, including criteria, due diligence, performance tracking, and risk mitigation.

Tabular Summary:

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13. In April 2025, India recorded net FDI inflows of how much, marking a 35-month high?
A) $2.29 billion
B) $3.19 billion
C) $8.80 billion
D) $3.95 billion
E) $10.13 billion
Answer: D) $3.95 billion

Event and Location:

• Event: India’s net FDI inflows reach 35-month high in April 2025
• Location: India (National economic data)
• Date: June 26, 2025 (as per RBI release)

Mandates and Objectives:

• Mandates:
  • The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) reported that net Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) into India stood at $3.95 billion in April 2025, while spending on foreign education under the Liberalised Remittance Scheme (LRS) fell for the ninth consecutive month.
• Objectives:
  • To track and evaluate foreign capital inflows, resident remittances abroad, and evolving economic trends in investment and education-related spending under India’s external account monitoring.

Important Terms Explained:

• Foreign Direct Investment (FDI):
  • FDI refers to capital investments made by foreign entities in Indian businesses or assets, signifying long-term interest and control.
• Liberalised Remittance Scheme (LRS):
  • A scheme by the RBI allowing Indian residents to remit up to $250,000 annually abroad for permissible current or capital account transactions like travel, education, or investments.
• Repatriation:
  • The withdrawal or return of foreign investment (capital or earnings) by foreign investors back to their home country. It’s subtracted from gross FDI to calculate net FDI.

Tabular Summary:

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Books and Authors – Daily Current Affairs June 26

14. What is the central theme of the book “The Emergency Diaries” released by Union Home Minister Amit Shah?
A) Biography of Atal Bihari Vajpayee
B) Economic reforms during 1991 crisis
C) PM Modi’s role during the Emergency era
D) GST implementation journey
E) India’s COVID-19 vaccination strategy
Answer: C) PM Modi’s role during the Emergency era

Event and Location:

• Event: Release of the book “The Emergency Diaries – Years That Forged a Leader” and launch of Loktantra Zindabad Yatra
• Location: New Delhi, India
• Date: 25 June 2025

Mandates and Objectives:

• Mandates: Union Home Minister Amit Shah released the book chronicling Prime Minister Narendra Modi’s resistance during the Emergency (1975–77). The event was part of Samvidhan Hatya Diwas 2025, marking 50 years since the Emergency was imposed.
• Objectives: To preserve the memory of India’s darkest democratic period, inspire awareness among youth about constitutional rights, and reflect on PM Modi’s early political activism as a young RSS Pracharak fighting against dictatorship.

Important Terms Explained:

• The Emergency (1975–77): A 21-month period from June 25, 1975, when then Prime Minister Indira Gandhi declared a state of emergency in India, suspending civil liberties, censoring the press, and arresting political opponents.
• Samvidhan Hatya Diwas: Literally translates to “Constitution Killing Day,” observed to mark the anniversary of the imposition of Emergency, and serve as a reminder to protect India’s democratic ethos.
• Loktantra Zindabad Yatra: A countrywide campaign launched to promote democratic values, constitutional awareness, and educate citizens, especially the youth, about the consequences of Emergency.

Tabular Summary:

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Awards – Daily Current Affairs June 26

15. Which Regional Passport Office has been awarded the Best Passport Office in India for 2025?
A) Hyderabad
B) Chennai
C) Kozhikode
D) Mumbai
E) Bhopal
Answer: C) Kozhikode

Event and Location:

• Event: Kozhikode RPO wins Best Passport Office Award in India
• Location: Kozhikode, Kerala
• Date: 26 June 2025

Mandates and Objectives:

• Mandates:
  • The Ministry of External Affairs organized the Annual Passport Officers’ Conference where awards for operational excellence were presented.
• Objectives:
  • The aim is to recognize and encourage top-performing passport offices for delivering quality service, handling high volumes efficiently, and driving innovation in public service delivery.

Important Terms Explained:

• Regional Passport Office (RPO):
  • A Regional Passport Office is a government unit under the Ministry of External Affairs that processes passport applications and issues travel documents within its jurisdiction.
• Passport Seva Kendra (PSK):
  • Physical passport processing centers that work under RPOs to offer front-end services like biometric collection, document verification, and grievance handling.
• Mobile Passport Van:
  • A mobile unit launched by the Kozhikode RPO, equipped with technology to capture biometric data and provide on-the-spot passport services, especially in remote areas.

Tabular Summary:

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16. Who will be awarded the CM’s Police Medal for anti-drug efforts on August 15, 2025, in Tamil Nadu?
A) 10 officers
B) 12 officers
C) 15 officers
D) 18 officers
E) 20 officers
Answer: C) 15 officers

Event and Location:

• Event: Tamil Nadu to award CM’s Police Medal to 15 officers for anti-drug work
• Location: Tamil Nadu, India
• Date: 26 June 2025 (announcement); 15 August 2025 (award presentation)

Mandates and Objectives:

• Mandates:
  • The Government of Tamil Nadu has announced the CM’s Police Medal to recognize 15 state police officers for their efforts in combating drug production and illicit trafficking.
• Objectives:
  • To honor and encourage effective law enforcement actions that contribute to the eradication of drug-related crimes and safeguard public health and safety in Tamil Nadu.

Important Terms Explained:

• CM’s Police Medal:
  • A state-level award conferred by the Chief Minister to police personnel in recognition of outstanding service in specific areas, such as crime prevention, investigation, or social protection.
• Prohibition Enforcement Wing (PEW):
  • A specialized unit in Tamil Nadu Police tasked with enforcing laws related to liquor prohibition and controlling drug trafficking.
• NIB CID:
  • Narcotics Intelligence Bureau – Criminal Investigation Department; a Tamil Nadu police unit dedicated to monitoring and investigating narcotics-related crimes.

Tabular Summary:

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Science and Technology – Daily Current Affairs June 26

17. According to the Energy Institute’s 2025 review, global energy CO₂ emissions in 2024 reached what record level?
A) 38.5 gigatonnes
B) 39.7 gigatonnes
C) 40.8 gigatonnes
D) 41.5 gigatonnes
E) 42.2 gigatonnes
Answer: C) 40.8 gigatonnes

Event and Location:

• Event: Global energy-related CO₂ emissions hit an all-time high
• Location: Global (as reported by the Energy Institute)
• Date: June 26, 2025

Mandates and Objectives:

• Mandates:
  • The Energy Institute, in partnership with KPMG and Kearney, released its annual statistical review, confirming a 1% rise in CO₂ emissions from energy use in 2024, reaching a record 40.8 gigatonnes.
• Objectives:
  • To evaluate global progress in reducing fossil fuel use and transitioning to renewable energy amid geopolitical tensions and rising energy demand.

Important Terms Explained:

• Energy Institute:
  • An independent global body of energy professionals that publishes annual reports analyzing energy trends and emissions data worldwide.
• COP28:
  • The 28th United Nations Climate Change Conference, held in Dubai in 2023, where nations agreed to transition away from fossil fuels and triple global renewable capacity by 2030.
• Carbon Dioxide Equivalent (CO₂e):
  • A standard unit for measuring carbon footprints, representing the amount of CO₂ that would have the same global warming potential as a given mixture of greenhouse gases.

Tabular Summary:

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Defence – Daily Current Affairs June 26

18. Which of the following statements is true about the Indian Coast Guard’s newly inducted vessel ‘Adamya’?
A) Adamya is the last patrol vessel built by Cochin Shipyard
B) Adamya uses imported propulsion systems
C) Adamya is a Fast Patrol Vessel built by Goa Shipyard Limited
D) Adamya is deployed for deep-sea mining operations
E) Adamya is part of the Indian Navy fleet
Answer: C) Adamya is a Fast Patrol Vessel built by Goa Shipyard Limited

Event and Location:

• Event: Induction of ‘Adamya’, the first Fast Patrol Vessel (FPV) under GSL’s 8-vessel series
• Location: Goa, India
• Date: 26 June 2025

Mandates and Objectives:

• Mandates: The Indian Coast Guard inducted ‘Adamya’, the first of eight Fast Patrol Vessels being built by Goa Shipyard Limited (GSL).
• Objectives: The aim is to strengthen the Coast Guard’s maritime capabilities in law enforcement, coastal surveillance, and protection of India’s Exclusive Economic Zone (EEZ) using advanced indigenous technologies.

Important Terms Explained:

• Fast Patrol Vessel (FPV): High-speed, lightweight vessels used by maritime security forces for patrolling, surveillance, and quick response operations in coastal areas.
• Controllable Pitch Propellers (CPPs): A propulsion technology that allows the blade angle of the propeller to be changed for improved maneuverability, speed control, and fuel efficiency.
• Integrated Bridge System (IBS): A system that integrates multiple navigational tools and controls on a single interface for efficient and safe vessel operation.

Tabular Summary:

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National Affairs – Daily Current Affairs June 26

19. What is the primary aim of the UPSC’s newly launched Pratibha Setu initiative?
A) To provide coaching for UPSC aspirants
B) To recruit candidates directly into Group A services
C) To connect non-recommended UPSC candidates with employment opportunities
D) To increase UPSC intake by revising cutoffs
E) To allow failed candidates to reappear without prelims
Answer: C) To connect non-recommended UPSC candidates with employment opportunities

Event and Location:

• Event: Launch of Pratibha Setu initiative by UPSC
• Location: Nationwide (India)
• Date: 23 June 2025

Mandates and Objectives:

• Mandates: The Union Public Service Commission (UPSC) has launched Pratibha Setu, a digital initiative aimed at linking non-recommended candidates with potential employers.
• Objectives: The objective is to help deserving candidates who cleared all stages of UPSC exams but did not make it to the final merit list to access alternate job opportunities in both government and private sectors.

Important Terms Explained:

• Pratibha Setu: A digital platform launched by UPSC to connect high-performing but non-recommended candidates from major UPSC exams with verified employers.
• Public Disclosure Scheme (PDS): The earlier version (launched in 2018) of the same concept, allowing public disclosure of non-selected candidates’ details for employment purposes.
• Corporate Identification Number (CIN): A unique identification number issued to companies registered under the Ministry of Corporate Affairs (MCA), required for employer authentication on the platform.

Tabular Summary:

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20. What is the key objective of the ICMR-NIIH’s newly launched national rare blood donor registry?
A) To centralize data on all blood banks in India
B) To enable rare blood group patients to find matching donors more easily
C) To create a new licensing system for blood banks
D) To promote blood donation in rural India only
E) To screen newborns for rare blood groups
Answer: B) To enable rare blood group patients to find matching donors more easily

Event and Location:

• Event: Launch of India’s first national rare blood donor registry by ICMR-NIIH
• Location: Mumbai, Maharashtra (applicable pan-India)
• Date: 21 June 2025

Mandates and Objectives:

• Mandates: The Indian Council of Medical Research–National Institute of Immunohaematology (ICMR-NIIH) has launched the Rare Donor Registry of India (RDRI) to catalogue and connect rare blood group donors for nationwide use.
• Objectives: The initiative aims to support patients with rare blood groups — especially those with thalassemia and sickle cell disease — by facilitating timely and accurate matching with registered donors through a digital registry system integrated with e-Raktakosh.

Important Terms Explained:

• Rare Donor Registry of India (RDRI): A centralized digital database of rare blood donors across India to support patients requiring uncommon blood types, maintained by ICMR-NIIH.
• e-Raktakosh: An existing national blood bank information portal developed by the Directorate General of Health Services (DGHS) under the Ministry of Health, aimed at streamlining blood inventory and donor matching processes.
• Thalassemia: A hereditary blood disorder where the body makes abnormal hemoglobin, leading to the need for lifelong blood transfusions.

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21. What major policy initiative was launched by Uttarakhand CM Pushkar Singh Dhami on International Yoga Day 2025?
A) Hill Area Economic Reforms Policy
B) Uttarakhand Health Subsidy Act
C) State Yoga Policy and Spiritual Economic Zones
D) Natural Wellness and Tourism Bill
E) Himalayan Biodiversity Promotion Scheme
Answer: C) State Yoga Policy and Spiritual Economic Zones

Event and Location:

• Event: Launch of Uttarakhand’s first Yoga Policy and announcement of Spiritual Economic Zones
• Location: Bhararisain, Uttarakhand (Summer Capital)
• Date: 22 June 2025

Mandates and Objectives:

• Mandates: The Uttarakhand Government, under CM Pushkar Singh Dhami, launched the state’s first Yoga Policy and announced the creation of Spiritual Economic Zones (SEZs) in the Garhwal and Kumaon regions.
• Objectives: To establish Uttarakhand as a global hub of yoga, ayurveda, and spiritual tourism, promote health and wellness, support employment generation in the hills, and curb outmigration by developing economic opportunities around the wellness sector.

Important Terms Explained:

• Yoga Policy: A state-level framework for promoting yoga practice, research, education, and tourism. The policy includes subsidies up to ₹20 lakh for yoga and meditation center setups, and research grants up to ₹10 lakh for studies in yoga and naturopathy.
• Spiritual Economic Zones (SEZs): Proposed zones in Garhwal and Kumaon divisions aimed at attracting international tourists and investments in ayurveda, yoga, and wellness sectors, while also promoting job creation and local entrepreneurship.
• AYUSH Health and Wellness Centers: Government-run centers under the Ministry of AYUSH focusing on Ayurveda, Yoga & Naturopathy, Unani, Siddha, and Homeopathy, now being expanded to include yoga services across Uttarakhand by March 2026.

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22. Which wildlife sanctuary in Kerala was renamed to become India’s first dedicated butterfly sanctuary?
A) Silent Valley National Park
B) Periyar Tiger Reserve
C) Aralam Wildlife Sanctuary
D) Eravikulam National Park
E) Wayanad Wildlife Sanctuary
Answer: C) Aralam Wildlife Sanctuary

Event and Location:

• Event: Renaming of Aralam Wildlife Sanctuary to Aralam Butterfly Sanctuary, India’s first butterfly sanctuary
• Location: Kannur, Kerala (Western Ghats region)
• Date: 18 June 2025

Mandates and Objectives:

• Mandates: The Kerala State Wildlife Board officially renamed the Aralam Wildlife Sanctuary as the Aralam Butterfly Sanctuary, making it the first protected forest in India dedicated solely to butterflies.
• Objectives: To conserve over 266 species of butterflies, including several endangered and endemic ones; enhance public awareness, eco-tourism, and research on pollinators; and promote biodiversity protection in the Western Ghats.

Important Terms Explained:

• Butterfly Sanctuary: A designated protected area focused specifically on the conservation, research, and habitat protection of butterfly species and their ecological role.
• Western Ghats: A UNESCO World Heritage biodiversity hotspot that runs parallel to the western coast of India. Known for its rich flora and fauna, including a high percentage of endemic species.
• Butterfly Migration Study: An annual scientific survey held in January/February, where researchers document butterfly migration patterns and population dynamics at Aralam, in collaboration with the Malabar Natural History Society.

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23. What is the key focus of the Indian Conservation Conference (ICCON) 2025 hosted by the Wildlife Institute of India?
A) Development of urban smart cities
B) Launch of a new tiger census program
C) Promotion of green hydrogen projects
D) Conservation science, policy, and biodiversity challenges
E) Implementation of forest laws in tribal areas
Answer: D) Conservation science, policy, and biodiversity challenges

Event and Location:

• Event: Hosting of ICCON 2025 – Indian Conservation Conference
• Location: Wildlife Institute of India (WII), Dehradun, Uttarakhand
• Date: 25–27 June 2025

Mandates and Objectives:

• Mandates: The Wildlife Institute of India, under the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MoEFCC), is hosting ICCON 2025, India’s leading national platform for conservation discussions.
• Objectives: To bring together over 500 conservation professionals from across India and the Global South to deliberate on biodiversity issues, promote cross-sectoral collaboration, showcase innovations through TechBridge, and foster youth engagement through workshops, mentorship, and travel bursaries.

Important Terms Explained:

• ICCON (Indian Conservation Conference): An annual flagship platform for wildlife scientists, policymakers, NGOs, and forest officials to discuss biodiversity conservation. Launched in 2023 during Project Tiger’s golden jubilee.
• Wildlife Institute of India (WII): An autonomous institution under the MoEFCC, specializing in wildlife research, training, and conservation strategies, headquartered in Dehradun.
• TechBridge: A new forum introduced in ICCON 2025 that showcases wildlife technologies and innovations for field-level conservation solutions.
• International Big Cat Alliance (IBCA): A global initiative to protect big cats like tigers, lions, and leopards, launched by India in 2023 during the first ICCON.

Tabular Summary:

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24. What is the total approved investment for the Electronics Manufacturing Cluster (EMC 2.0) in Gautam Buddha Nagar, Uttar Pradesh?
A) ₹317 crore
B) ₹417 crore
C) ₹517 crore
D) ₹800 crore
E) ₹2,500 crore
Answer: B) ₹417 crore

Event and Location:

• Event: Government approves ₹417 crore Electronics Manufacturing Cluster (EMC 2.0) project
• Location: Sector-10, Gautam Buddha Nagar, Uttar Pradesh
• Date: 26 June 2025

Mandates and Objectives:

• Mandates:
  • The Union Government approved a ₹417 crore project for the development of Electronics Manufacturing Cluster (EMC 2.0) on 206.4 acres in Sector-10, Gautam Buddha Nagar, UP.
• Objectives:
  • To promote electronics manufacturing under Make in India, attract investments worth ₹2,500 crore, generate 15,000 jobs, and build a state-of-the-art industrial ecosystem with world-class infrastructure near Jewar Airport.

Important Terms Explained:

• Electronics Manufacturing Cluster (EMC 2.0):
  • A central government initiative under MeitY to develop industrial clusters dedicated to electronics manufacturing, with shared infrastructure and skill development facilities.
• YEIDA (Yamuna Expressway Industrial Development Authority):
  • A statutory authority under the UP government responsible for the development of industrial and urban infrastructure along the Yamuna Expressway.
• Make in India:
  • A flagship initiative launched in 2014 aimed at encouraging companies to manufacture in India and boost domestic manufacturing capacity.
• India Semiconductor Mission (ISM):
  • A government initiative under MeitY to position India as a global hub for semiconductor design and manufacturing, providing incentives to semiconductor-related industries.
• Electronics Component Manufacturing Scheme (ECMS):
  • A central scheme offering incentives to promote domestic manufacturing of electronic components and semiconductors.

Tabular Summary:

 

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