Daily Current Affairs July 18 & 19

Dear Champions, as you all know that a lot of competitive exams have been notified consequently. Candidates have to prepare themselves according to the level of competition and expectation of the Recruitment board. Regarding that one of the most important topic is Daily Current Affairs July 18 & 19. Current Affairs in the form of contemporary events of national & international play a crucial role in almost every competitive exams like Banking, Insurance, SSC, UPSC, TNPSC, Railway etc.

Current affairs are the most dynamic yet scoring among all sections and need to be prepared from the right source. Here, we cafunsta team, providing Daily GK Updates, Current Affairs Questions, and Monthly current affairs pdf.

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July 18 & 19 | Daily Current Affairs 2026

Sports – Daily Current Affairs July 18 & 19

1. What is Rohit Sharma’s record highest individual score in One Day International cricket?
A) 200
B) 208
C) 209
D) 237
E) 264
Answer: E) 264.

Event and Location:

• Event: Rohit Sharma, popularly known as the “Hitman,” has achieved several major batting, captaincy and tournament records across international and franchise cricket.
• Location: His achievements relate primarily to Indian cricket, international tournaments and the Indian Premier League.
• Date: The career records and achievements were reported on July 19, 2026.

Mandates and Objectives:

• Mandates: The career profile compiles Rohit Sharma’s major records in international cricket, the Indian Premier League, captaincy and individual awards.
• Objectives: The profile aims to highlight his contributions as an opening batter, captain and record-holder across multiple formats of cricket.

Important Terms Explained:

• One Day International: An ODI is an international limited-overs match in which each team normally receives a maximum of 50 overs.
• Twenty20 International: A T20I is an international match in which each team plays a maximum of 20 overs.
• Test Cricket: It is the longest international format of cricket and is played for a maximum of five days.
• Indian Premier League: The IPL is a professional franchise-based Twenty20 cricket tournament conducted in India.
• Major Dhyan Chand Khel Ratna: It is India’s highest sporting honour, awarded for outstanding performance in sports over a sustained period.
• Arjuna Award: It is a national sports award presented by the Government of India for consistent and exceptional achievement in sports.

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Obituary – Daily Current Affairs July 18 & 19

2. How many Test runs did Sir Garfield Sobers score during his international career?
A) 7,032
B) 7,532
C) 8,032
D) 8,532
E) 9,032
Answer: C) 8,032.

Event and Location:

• Event: Sir Garfield Sobers, one of cricket’s greatest all-rounders, passed away at the age of 89.
• Location: Sobers represented the West Indies in international cricket and played county cricket for Nottinghamshire.
• Date: His death was reported on July 20, 2026.

Mandates and Objectives:

• Mandates: The death of the legendary West Indian cricketer was confirmed by his son Daniel.
• Objectives: Tributes highlighted his exceptional contributions as a batter, bowler and pioneering all-rounder in international and first-class cricket.

Important Terms Explained:

• All-Rounder: An all-rounder is a cricketer who contributes significantly with both batting and bowling.
• Test Cricket: It is the longest international format of cricket, played between officially recognised national teams over a maximum of five days.
• First-Class Cricket: It is a high-level form of domestic or international cricket played over multiple days between recognised teams.
• One Day International: An ODI is an international limited-overs match in which each team normally faces a maximum of 50 overs.
• Left-Arm Fast-Medium Bowling: It is a bowling style in which a left-handed bowler delivers the ball at a pace between medium-fast and express-fast speeds.

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Banking and Finance – Daily Current Affairs July 18 & 19

3. What was the Gross Non-Performing Assets ratio of scheduled commercial banks in the RBI Financial Stability Report of June 2026?
A) 1.5%
B) 1.8%
C) 2.1%
D) 2.5%
E) 3.0%
Answer: B) 1.8%.

Event and Location:

• Event: The Reserve Bank of India released the Financial Stability Report for June 2026, highlighting strong banking performance and emerging financial risks.
• Location: The report assesses the stability and resilience of India’s financial system.
• Date: The report was released in June 2026.

Mandates and Objectives:

• Mandates: The Financial Stability Report evaluates banks, non-banking financial institutions, insurance companies, mutual funds, financial markets and systemic risks.
• Objectives: The report aims to assess the resilience of the financial system, identify emerging vulnerabilities and guide regulatory and policy responses.

Important Terms Explained:

• Gross Non-Performing Assets: GNPA refers to the total value of loans on which borrowers have failed to make scheduled repayments, before adjusting for provisions.
• Liquidity Coverage Ratio: LCR measures whether a bank holds sufficient high-quality liquid assets to meet its short-term obligations during a 30-day stress period.
• Net Stable Funding Ratio: NSFR measures whether a bank maintains adequate stable funding to support its assets and activities over a one-year period.
• Stress Test: It is an assessment used to determine whether financial institutions can withstand severe but plausible economic or financial shocks.
• Cyber Risk: It refers to the possibility of financial losses, operational disruption or data breaches arising from cyberattacks and technology failures.
• Unsecured Loan: It is a loan granted without collateral and is generally associated with higher credit risk.

Tabular Summary:

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Appointments – Daily Current Affairs July 18 & 19

4. Who was confirmed as the new leader of the UK Labour Party in July 2026?
A) Keir Starmer
B) Andy Burnham
C) Nigel Farage
D) Gordon Brown
E) Tony Blair
Answer: B) Andy Burnham.

Event and Location:

• Event: Andy Burnham was confirmed unopposed as leader of the Labour Party and is set to become the United Kingdom’s next Prime Minister.
• Location: The confirmation took place during Labour’s Special Conference in London, United Kingdom.
• Date: Burnham was confirmed as Labour leader on July 17, 2026, and is expected to assume office as Prime Minister on July 20, 2026.

Mandates and Objectives:

• Mandates: Burnham will succeed Keir Starmer and lead the Labour government while preparing a new cabinet and governance programme.
• Objectives: His leadership agenda focuses on decentralising power, strengthening regional development, improving public services and rebuilding public trust in government.

Important Terms Explained:

• Labour Party: It is a major centre-left political party in the United Kingdom that currently forms the national government.
• Devolution: It is the transfer of decision-making powers from the central government to regional or local authorities.
• Business-Friendly Socialism: It is Burnham’s stated approach of combining public control of essential services with cooperation between the government and private businesses.
• Greater Manchester Mayor: It is the elected regional office responsible for strategic governance across Greater Manchester, which Burnham held for nine years.
• Reform UK: It is a British political party led by Nigel Farage that has focused heavily on immigration, Brexit and opposition to established political parties.

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Awards – Daily Current Affairs July 18 & 19

5. Which film won the Best Feature Film award at the 72nd National Film Awards?
A) Amaran
B) Article 370
C) Chandu Champion
D) Bramayugam
E) Kalki 2898 AD
Answer: B) Article 370.

Event and Location:

• Event: The winners of the 72nd National Film Awards were announced, with Article 370 receiving the Best Feature Film award.
• Location: The awards were announced in New Delhi.
• Date: The winners were reported on July 18, 2026.

Mandates and Objectives:

• Mandates: The awards recognised outstanding feature films, non-feature films, performances, direction, music, technical achievements and regional-language cinema certified during 2024.
• Objectives: The National Film Awards aim to honour excellence, creativity, cultural diversity and technical achievement in Indian cinema.

Important Terms Explained:

• Central Board of Film Certification: The CBFC is the statutory authority responsible for certifying films for public exhibition in India.
• Feature Film: It is a full-length film produced primarily for theatrical, television or digital exhibition.
• Non-Feature Film: It is a shorter cinematic work such as a documentary, animation, short film or educational production.
• Jury: It is a panel of experts appointed to assess eligible entries and select award recipients across different categories.

Tabular Summary:

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Schemes – Daily Current Affairs July 18 & 19

6. For how long is the EPFO VISHWAS 2026 scheme valid from its notification date?
A) Three months
B) Six months
C) Nine months
D) One year
E) Two years
Answer: B) Six months.

Event and Location:

• Event: The Employees’ Provident Fund Organisation launched VISHWAS 2026 as a one-time mechanism for resolving disputes concerning damages and penalties.
• Location: The scheme applies to eligible employers covered under EPFO across India.
• Date: The scheme was notified on June 29, 2026, through G.S.R. 525(E).

Mandates and Objectives:

• Mandates: The VISHWAS 2026 Scheme covers eligible pending, recovery-stage and pre-notice cases involving damages under Section 14B of the EPF and MP Act, 1952, and penalties under Section 128 of the Code on Social Security, 2020.
• Objectives: The scheme aims to reduce litigation, encourage voluntary compliance, accelerate dispute settlement and improve the administration of social security obligations.

Important Terms Explained:

• Section 14B: It empowers EPFO authorities to recover damages from employers for defaults in depositing provident fund contributions.
• Section 7Q: It provides for the payment of statutory interest by employers on delayed provident fund contributions.
• Recovery Certificate: It is an official recovery instrument issued for collecting confirmed statutory dues from a defaulting establishment.
• Digital Signature Certificate: A DSC is an electronic authentication tool used to verify the identity of an applicant while submitting documents online.
• e-Sign: It is an electronic signature facility that allows users to authenticate and sign digital applications securely.
• Voluntary Compliance: It refers to employers fulfilling statutory obligations without prolonged enforcement action or litigation.

Tabular Summary:

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National Affairs – Daily Current Affairs July 18 & 19

7. How many beds will the proposed Critical Care Block at PGIMER Chandigarh have?
A) 100
B) 125
C) 150
D) 200
E) 300
Answer: C) 150.

Event and Location:

• Event: Prime Minister Narendra Modi inaugurated the Advanced Mother and Child Centre and Advanced Neurosciences Centre at PGIMER Chandigarh and laid the foundation stone for a Critical Care Block.
• Location: The healthcare facilities are located at the Post Graduate Institute of Medical Education and Research in Chandigarh.
• Date: The development was reported on July 18, 2026.

Mandates and Objectives:

• Mandates: The projects include a 300-bed mother and child healthcare facility, an advanced neurological care centre and a proposed 150-bed Critical Care Block under PM-ABHIM.
• Objectives: The projects aim to expand access to specialised healthcare, strengthen emergency and intensive care capacity and support medical education and research in northern India.

Important Terms Explained:

• Advanced Mother and Child Centre: It is a 300-bed tertiary healthcare facility providing specialised services for complicated pregnancies, newborns, children and critically ill infants.
• Advanced Neurosciences Centre: It is a specialised facility providing neurology, neurosurgery, neuro-critical care, integrated treatment, research and medical teaching services.
• Pradhan Mantri Ayushman Bharat Health Infrastructure Mission: PM-ABHIM is a national initiative aimed at strengthening public health infrastructure, disease surveillance, laboratories and critical care facilities.
• Critical Care Block: It is a specialised hospital unit equipped to treat patients requiring intensive monitoring, emergency intervention and life-support services.
• eSanjeevani: It is the Government of India’s telemedicine platform that enables remote medical consultations between patients and healthcare professionals.

Tabular Summary:

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8. Which ministry is implementing the National e-Vidhan Application under the Digital India Programme?
A) Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology
B) Ministry of Parliamentary Affairs
C) Ministry of Home Affairs
D) Ministry of Law and Justice
E) Ministry of Information and Broadcasting
Answer: B) Ministry of Parliamentary Affairs.

Event and Location:

• Event: Maharashtra is moving towards implementing the National e-Vidhan Application to digitise the functioning of its Legislative Assembly and Legislative Council.
• Location: The project will cover the Maharashtra Legislature complexes in Mumbai and Nagpur.
• Date: The development was reported on July 18, 2026.

Mandates and Objectives:

• Mandates: The concerned Union and state departments will complete the required Memorandum of Understanding and establish the technical infrastructure, software systems and capacity-building arrangements for NeVA.
• Objectives: The initiative aims to create paperless legislative proceedings, improve efficiency and transparency and make legislative information more accessible to citizens.

Important Terms Explained:

• Digital India Programme: It is a Government of India initiative aimed at expanding digital infrastructure, delivering public services electronically and improving technology-enabled governance.
• Mission Mode Project: It is a technology-driven government project with clearly defined objectives, timelines, responsibilities and measurable outcomes.
• One Nation One Application: It is the guiding principle behind NeVA, which seeks to provide a common digital platform for legislatures across India.
• Memorandum of Understanding: An MoU is a formal agreement that outlines the roles, responsibilities and cooperation arrangements between participating authorities.
• Paperless Governance: It refers to conducting official work electronically to reduce physical documentation, speed up processes and improve record management.

Tabular Summary:

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9. Which state topped NITI Aayog’s first Investment Friendliness Index among large states?
A) Maharashtra
B) Tamil Nadu
C) Gujarat
D) Odisha
E) Karnataka
Answer: C) Gujarat.

Event and Location:

• Event: Gujarat topped NITI Aayog’s first Investment Friendliness Index among India’s large states with a score of 56.6 out of 100.
• Location: The index assessed investment readiness across all 36 States and Union Territories of India.
• Date: The index findings were reported on July 18, 2026.

Mandates and Objectives:

• Mandates: The Investment Friendliness Index evaluates States and Union Territories through 84 indicators organised under eight pillars covering governance, infrastructure, regulations and economic conditions.
• Objectives: The index aims to identify regional strengths and weaknesses, guide policy reforms and improve the investment climate without treating the assessment solely as a competitive ranking.

Important Terms Explained:

• NITI Aayog: It is the Government of India’s public policy institution responsible for promoting cooperative federalism, strategic planning and evidence-based policy reforms.
• Investment Readiness: It refers to the ability of a region to attract, facilitate and sustain investments through adequate infrastructure, supportive policies and efficient institutions.
• Regulatory Ease: It measures how efficiently businesses can obtain approvals, comply with regulations and operate within a state or Union Territory.
• Environmental Resilience: It assesses a region’s ability to manage environmental risks while supporting sustainable economic and industrial development.
• Benchmarking Mechanism: It is a method of comparing performance across entities using common indicators and assessment standards.

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Over All Review

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