Daily Current Affairs August 29–30

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August 29–30 | Daily Current Affairs 2026

Important Days – Daily Current Affairs August 29–30

1. National Sports Day in India is observed annually on August 29 to commemorate the birth anniversary of which legendary sportsperson?
A) Milkha Singh
B) Major Dhyan Chand
C) Balbir Singh Sr
D) P. T. Usha
E) Dhanraj Pillay
Answer: B) Major Dhyan Chand.

Event and Location:

• Event: National Sports Day 2026 was observed to honour Major Dhyan Chand on his birth anniversary and promote sports, fitness and healthy living across India.
• Location: The observance and associated three-day campaign were conducted across India.
• Date: National Sports Day is observed annually on August 29, while the 2026 celebrations were held from August 28 to August 30, 2026.

Mandates and Objectives:

• Mandates: The 2026 celebrations under the theme “Tribute, Play and Move” involved tributes to sporting legends, sporting activities and fitness campaigns organised by schools, sporting bodies and other institutions.
• Objectives: The observance aims to honour India’s sporting heritage, encourage participation in sports and physical activities, and promote fitness and healthy living among children, youth and the general public.

Important Terms Explained:

• Fit India Movement: It is a nationwide fitness initiative launched by Prime Minister Narendra Modi in New Delhi on August 29, 2019, to make physical fitness an integral part of everyday life.
• Major Dhyan Chand Khel Ratna Award: It is India’s highest sporting award, renamed from the Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna Award on August 24, 2021, in honour of Major Dhyan Chand.
• National Sports Awards: These are national-level sporting honours associated with achievements and contributions in Indian sports and include awards such as the Arjuna Award and Dronacharya Award.

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2. On which date is National Small Industry Day observed annually in India?
A) August 26
B) August 27
C) August 28
D) August 29
E) August 30
Answer: E) August 30.

Event and Location:

• Event: National Small Industry Day 2026 was observed to recognise the contribution of micro, small and medium enterprises to entrepreneurship, employment and economic growth in India.
• Location: The observance applies across India and highlights the contribution of enterprises operating in rural, semi-urban and urban areas.
• Date: National Small Industry Day is observed annually on August 30.

Mandates and Objectives:

• Mandates: The observance highlights the evolving policy framework for MSMEs, including improved access to credit, technology, infrastructure and markets, along with reforms introduced through classification changes and legislative measures.
• Objectives: The measures aim to make small enterprises more competitive and scalable, improve formalisation and financing, strengthen market access and promote employment and industrial development.

Important Terms Explained:

• MSME: Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises are businesses classified under prescribed investment and turnover criteria and form an important part of India’s manufacturing, services, exports and employment ecosystem.
• MSMED Act: The Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises Development Act, 2006 provides the statutory framework for classification, promotion, development and facilitation of MSMEs in India.
• TReDS: The Trade Receivables Discounting System is an electronic platform that facilitates financing of trade receivables of MSMEs from corporate buyers and other eligible entities.
• Udyam Registration: It is the government’s online registration mechanism for formally recognising eligible micro, small and medium enterprises and facilitating access to applicable benefits and support measures.

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Sports – Daily Current Affairs August 29–30

3. At which position did India finish in the FIH World Cup after losing to Belgium in the shootout?
A) Fifth
B) Sixth
C) Seventh
D) Eighth
E) Ninth
Answer: D) Eighth.

Event and Location:

• Event: India finished eighth in the FIH World Cup after losing 4-3 to Belgium in a shootout following a 3-3 draw in regulation time.
• Location: The classification match between India and Belgium was played at Wavre, Belgium.
• Date: The result was reported on August 29, 2026.

Mandates and Objectives:

• Mandates: India faced Belgium in the classification match for seventh place, with the contest proceeding to a shootout after both teams were tied 3-3 at the end of regulation time.
• Objectives: The match determined the final seventh and eighth positions in the tournament, with Belgium securing seventh place and India finishing eighth.

Important Terms Explained:

• Shootout: It is a tie-breaking procedure in hockey used to determine the winner when a knockout or classification match remains level after regulation time.
• Classification Match: It is a match played to determine the final placement of teams after they are no longer competing for the championship title.
• Penalty Corner: It is a set-piece opportunity awarded for certain defensive infringements inside the shooting circle or deliberate fouls within the defensive area.

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4. Which state has launched India’s first state-level Sports Genomics Programme?
A) Maharashtra
B) Haryana
C) Gujarat
D) Karnataka
E) Odisha
Answer: C) Gujarat.

Event and Location:

• Event: Gujarat has launched India’s first state-level Sports Genomics Programme to integrate genomics with sports science, physiology and nutrition for scientific athlete identification and high-performance training.
• Location: The programme is being implemented in Gujarat under the supervision of the Gujarat Biotechnology Research Centre.
• Date: The programme was reported on August 29, 2026.

Mandates and Objectives:

• Mandates: The programme will collect and analyse genetic, physiological and performance-related data from athletes across multiple sports and age groups, with a target of about 2,000 samples annually and 10,000 samples over five years.
• Objectives: The initiative aims to support athlete identification, personalised training, injury-risk assessment, recovery planning and nutrition strategies while developing Gujarat as a Sports Biotechnology Innovation Hub.

Important Terms Explained:

• Sports Genomics: It is the study of genetic variations associated with sporting traits such as endurance, muscle composition, power, metabolism, exercise response and susceptibility to injury.
• Gujarat Athlete Genome Database (G-AGD): It is the proposed database that will compile athlete-related genetic, physiological and performance information for scientific sports research and athlete development.
• Genomic Data: It refers to information derived from an individual’s genetic material and requires strong safeguards because of its sensitive and personally identifiable nature.
• Informed Consent: It is the process through which participants voluntarily agree to provide data or samples after being informed about the purpose, methods, risks and use of the information.

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Ranking – Daily Current Affairs August 29–30

5. By approximately what percentage did India’s malaria cases and deaths decline between 2015 and 2025?
A) 50%
B) 60%
C) 70%
D) 80%
E) 90%
Answer: D) 80%.

Event and Location:

• Event: India recorded nearly an 80% decline in malaria cases and deaths between 2015 and 2025, while 160 districts reported zero indigenous malaria cases during 2022–2025.
• Location: The progress was recorded across India, with 33 high-burden districts concentrated across nine States and Union Territories.
• Date: The decade-long progress covers the period from 2015 to 2025 and was reported on August 29, 2026.

Mandates and Objectives:

• Mandates: The Union Health Ministry has emphasised stronger surveillance, timely diagnosis and treatment, environmental control, community participation and implementation of the Test, Treat and Track approach, particularly in high-burden and hard-to-reach areas.
• Objectives: The measures aim to interrupt malaria transmission, prevent resurgence in areas with zero indigenous cases and achieve India’s malaria elimination target by 2030.

Important Terms Explained:

• Test, Treat and Track: It is a malaria-control approach focused on early testing of suspected cases, timely treatment of confirmed patients and continued tracking through surveillance to prevent further transmission.
• Indigenous Malaria Case: It refers to a malaria infection acquired locally within a particular geographical area rather than being imported from another region.
• Active Surveillance: It involves proactive identification of suspected malaria cases by health authorities instead of relying only on patients reporting voluntarily to health facilities.
• Source Reduction: It refers to eliminating or managing mosquito breeding sites, such as stagnant water, to reduce the mosquito population and interrupt disease transmission.

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Business and Economy – Daily Current Affairs August 29–30

6. India’s foreign exchange reserves reached what record level in the week ended August 21, 2026?
A) $666.9 billion
B) $701.4 billion
C) $718.7 billion
D) $729.3 billion
E) $745.6 billion
Answer: D) $729.3 billion.

Event and Location:

• Event: India’s forex reserves increased by $12.4 billion to a record $729.3 billion, according to figures released by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI).
• Location: The development relates to India’s foreign exchange reserve position.
• Date: The reserves reached the record level in the week ended August 21, 2026.

Mandates and Objectives:

• Mandates: The RBI’s concessional swap window, capital inflows and revaluation gains contributed to the sharp recovery in reserves after they had fallen to $666.9 billion in June 2026.
• Objectives: Strong foreign exchange reserves provide India with an external financial buffer, support foreign exchange market stability and provide import cover exceeding 11 months of goods imports.

Important Terms Explained:

• Foreign Currency Assets (FCAs): These form the largest component of India’s forex reserves and include foreign currency holdings whose dollar value changes with movements in currencies such as the euro, sterling and yen.
• Revaluation Gain: It refers to an increase in the reported value of reserve assets caused by changes in exchange rates or asset prices rather than fresh purchases.
• Special Drawing Rights (SDRs): These are international reserve assets created by the International Monetary Fund and allocated to member countries to supplement their official reserves.
• Reserve Position with the IMF: It represents a member country’s readily available claim on the International Monetary Fund that forms part of its external reserve assets.

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7. Which State or Union Territory recorded the highest own revenue share in FY25 Budget Estimates at 93.2%?
A) Haryana
B) Telangana
C) Karnataka
D) Delhi
E) Tamil Nadu
Answer: D) Delhi.

Event and Location:

• Event: Delhi ranked first among States and Union Territories with available data in own revenue share, recording 93.2% of total revenue receipts in FY25 Budget Estimates.
• Location: The ranking covers Indian States and Union Territories for which comparable fiscal data was available.
• Date: The figures relate to FY25 Budget Estimates and were reported on August 29, 2026.

Mandates and Objectives:

• Mandates: The India State Fiscal Health Tracker assessed the share of revenue generated internally by States and Union Territories using data from the Reserve Bank of India’s 2025 Handbook of Statistics on Indian States.
• Objectives: The indicator measures the extent to which a State or Union Territory finances its revenue receipts through its own tax and non-tax sources rather than relying on central tax devolution and grants.

Important Terms Explained:

• Own Revenue Share: It is the percentage of total revenue receipts generated through a State or Union Territory’s own tax revenue and own non-tax revenue.
• Own Tax Revenue: It refers to revenue collected by a State through taxes that fall within its taxation powers.
• Own Non-Tax Revenue: It includes internally generated receipts such as fees, royalties, dividends and user charges other than taxes.
• Budget Estimates (BE): These are projected government receipts and expenditures for a financial year as presented in the budget.

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Defence – Daily Current Affairs August 29–30

8. Which US-made anti-tank guided missile is the Indian Army set to acquire after a nearly 17-year pursuit?
A) Hellfire
B) Stinger
C) FGM-148 Javelin
D) Tomahawk
E) Patriot
Answer: C) FGM-148 Javelin.

Event and Location:

• Event: The Indian Army is set to acquire US-made FGM-148 Javelin anti-tank guided missiles after a pursuit lasting nearly 17 years.
• Location: The procurement involves India and the United States, with the missiles intended for deployment by the Indian Army.
• Date: The development was reported on August 29, 2026, following a US congressional notification regarding the potential sale in November 2025.

Mandates and Objectives:

• Mandates: The first contract has been signed through the Foreign Military Sales (FMS) process using the Indian Army’s emergency procurement provisions, while future collaborative manufacturing of Javelin missiles in India may also be explored.
• Objectives: The acquisition aims to strengthen the Army’s anti-tank capability through fire-and-forget guidance, top-attack capability and improved operator survivability against armoured targets.

Important Terms Explained:

• Imaging Infrared Seeker: It is a guidance system that detects the infrared signature of a target and allows the missile to lock onto it before launch.
• Fire-and-Forget: It refers to a missile capability in which the weapon independently guides itself toward the target after launch, allowing the operator to immediately move to cover.
• Top-Attack Mode: It is an attack profile in which a missile strikes an armoured vehicle from above, where tank armour is generally more vulnerable.
• Explosive Reactive Armor: It is protective armour fitted to military vehicles that uses explosive elements to reduce the effectiveness of incoming anti-tank warheads.
• MPATGM: The Man-Portable Anti-Tank Guided Missile is an indigenous Indian anti-tank missile system developed by DRDO and tested in top-attack mode against moving targets.

Tabular Summary:

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International Affairs – Daily Current Affairs August 29–30

9. According to Donald Trump’s announcement, the proposed US-Venezuela oil deal would give the United States majority control over how many barrels of proven oil reserves?
A) 45 billion barrels
B) 55 billion barrels
C) 65 billion barrels
D) 75 billion barrels
E) 90 billion barrels
Answer: C) 65 billion barrels.

Event and Location:

• Event: US President Donald Trump announced a proposed US-Venezuela oil deal that he said would give the United States majority control over 65 billion barrels of proven Venezuelan oil reserves.
• Location: The proposed agreement concerns oil assets in Venezuela and energy relations between Washington and Caracas.
• Date: The announcement was reported on August 29, 2026, while the Venezuelan government had not yet confirmed the deal.

Mandates and Objectives:

• Mandates: According to Trump, the proposed agreement involves the US administration and private companies gaining majority control over specified Venezuelan oil reserves, while US Secretary of State Marco Rubio said it could attract nearly $100 billion in private investment.
• Objectives: The proposed arrangement aims to increase oil production, attract private capital to Venezuela, support economic rebuilding and employment, and provide the United States with more stable oil supplies in the Western Hemisphere.

Important Terms Explained:

• Proven Oil Reserves: These are quantities of crude oil that geological and engineering data indicate can be commercially recovered with reasonable certainty under existing economic and operating conditions.
• Energy Security: It refers to the reliable and affordable availability of energy supplies needed to meet a country’s economic and strategic requirements.
• Private Investment: It refers to capital committed by privately owned companies or investors for activities such as production, infrastructure development and commercial expansion.
• Oil Production: It refers to the extraction and processing of crude oil from underground reserves for commercial use.

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Schemes – Daily Current Affairs August 29–30

10. Which ministry launched the e-Shram Portal to create a national database of unorganised workers in India?
A) Ministry of Finance
B) Ministry of Rural Development
C) Ministry of Labour and Employment
D) Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment
E) Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship
Answer: C) Ministry of Labour and Employment.

Event and Location:

• Event: The e-Shram Portal continues in 2026 as a national digital platform linking India’s unorganised workers with eligible welfare and social security schemes through a 12-digit Universal Account Number.
• Location: The portal operates across India for eligible workers in the unorganised sector.
• Date: The e-Shram Portal was launched on August 26, 2021.

Mandates and Objectives:

• Mandates: The Ministry of Labour and Employment, with technical support from the National Informatics Centre, maintains a national database of unorganised workers and provides each registered worker with a 12-digit Universal Account Number (UAN).
• Objectives: The portal aims to improve identification of unorganised workers, facilitate access to eligible welfare and social security schemes, and provide a common digital platform for workers such as agricultural labourers, construction workers, domestic workers, street vendors, migrant workers and gig workers.

Important Terms Explained:

• Unorganised Worker: It refers to a worker employed in the informal or unorganised sector who generally does not receive formal employment-based social security coverage such as EPFO or ESIC.
• Aadhaar-based e-KYC: It is an electronic identity verification process through which details such as name, date of birth and address can be authenticated using Aadhaar credentials.
• Direct Benefit Transfer (DBT): It is a system through which eligible government benefits or subsidies are transferred directly into beneficiaries’ bank accounts.
• Common Service Centre (CSC): It is an assisted digital service point that can help workers without access to smartphones or computers complete online government-related services, including e-Shram registration.

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National Affairs – Daily Current Affairs August 29–30

11. Which state has notified three elephant corridors covering more than 10,300 hectares in the Hosur Forest Division?
A) Karnataka
B) Kerala
C) Tamil Nadu
D) Andhra Pradesh
E) Telangana
Answer: C) Tamil Nadu.

Event and Location:

• Event: Tamil Nadu has notified three elephant corridors in the Hosur Forest Division covering more than 10,300 hectares to safeguard critical elephant movement routes.
• Location: The corridors are located in the Hosur Forest Division, including the Cauvery North Wildlife Sanctuary and adjoining reserved forests, and help connect elephant habitats between Tamil Nadu and Karnataka.
• Date: The notification was reported on August 29, 2026.

Mandates and Objectives:

• Mandates: The Tamil Nadu government designated the Jawalagiri-Ulibanda-Thaggatti, Jawalagiri-Panai-Anchetty and Billikkal Jawalagiri routes as elephant corridors following directions of the Madras High Court and recommendations of committees constituted to identify corridors and bottlenecks.
• Objectives: The notification aims to maintain habitat connectivity, facilitate unobstructed elephant movement between Tamil Nadu and Karnataka, and reduce risks arising from habitat fragmentation and human-elephant conflict.

Important Terms Explained:

• Habitat Connectivity: It refers to the linking of separate wildlife habitats so that animals can move safely between them for food, water, breeding and seasonal migration.
• Human-Elephant Conflict: It refers to interactions between humans and elephants that can cause crop damage, property loss, injuries or deaths, often due to shrinking or fragmented habitats.
• Reserved Forest: It is a legally protected category of forest land where activities and access are regulated under applicable forest laws to conserve forest resources and wildlife.

Tabular Summary:

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12. Which Union Territory is set to get sittings of the Jammu and Kashmir and Ladakh High Court under a regulation issued by President Droupadi Murmu?
A) Chandigarh
B) Puducherry
C) Ladakh
D) Lakshadweep
E) Andaman and Nicobar Islands
Answer: C) Ladakh.

Event and Location:

• Event: President Droupadi Murmu issued the Union Territory of Ladakh (Sitting of the Bench of the High Court of Jammu and Kashmir and Ladakh in Ladakh) Regulation, 2026, enabling High Court sittings within Ladakh.
• Location: The High Court sittings will be held at designated locations within the Union Territory of Ladakh.
• Date: The regulation was issued on August 27, 2026, following the Union Cabinet’s approval on August 20, 2026.

Mandates and Objectives:

• Mandates: The regulation allows the Chief Justice of the Jammu and Kashmir and Ladakh High Court to direct sittings of judges and divisions of the High Court at specified locations in Ladakh with the permission of the Lieutenant Governor.
• Objectives: The measure aims to improve access to higher judicial remedies, reduce travel time and costs for litigants, and make High Court proceedings more accessible to citizens, advocates and other legal stakeholders in Ladakh.

Important Terms Explained:

• High Court Bench: It refers to a location where judges of a High Court sit and hear cases outside or in addition to the court’s principal place of sitting.
• Official Gazette: It is an authorised government publication used to formally notify laws, regulations, rules, appointments and other official decisions.
• Litigant: A litigant is a person or party involved in a legal proceeding before a court.
• Chief Justice: The Chief Justice is the senior-most judicial authority of a High Court and performs both judicial and administrative functions relating to the court.

Tabular Summary:

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Over All Review

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