Daily Current Affairs August 08–09

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August 08–09 | Daily Current Affairs 2026

Important Days – Daily Current Affairs August 08–09

1. What is the theme of the International Day of the World’s Indigenous Peoples 2026?
A) Protecting Indigenous Languages and Heritage
B) Indigenous Youth as Agents of Change
C) Honouring Indigenous Midwives: Safeguarding Life and Well-being
D) Indigenous Peoples and Climate Action
E) Protecting Traditional Lands and Resources
Answer: C) Honouring Indigenous Midwives: Safeguarding Life and Well-being.

Event and Location:

• Event: The International Day of the World’s Indigenous Peoples 2026 is observed to recognize the rights, cultures, traditions and contributions of Indigenous Peoples worldwide.
• Location: The observance is marked globally under the framework of the United Nations.
• Date: The International Day of the World’s Indigenous Peoples is observed annually on 9 August, including 9 August 2026.

Mandates and Objectives:

• Mandates: The observance promotes awareness about Indigenous peoples’ rights, cultural preservation, traditional knowledge, land and resource rights, healthcare, education, equality and participation in decision-making.
• Objectives: It aims to protect Indigenous cultures and traditional knowledge, promote self-determination and equality, improve access to culturally appropriate healthcare and education, and safeguard Indigenous communities’ relationship with their ancestral lands and natural resources.

Important Terms Explained:

• Honouring Indigenous Midwives: Safeguarding Life and Well-being: It is the 2026 theme highlighting the role of Indigenous midwives in preserving traditional knowledge related to pregnancy, childbirth, motherhood and community well-being.
• Indigenous Midwives: They are traditional healthcare practitioners within Indigenous communities who provide maternal and childbirth care while preserving culturally rooted medical knowledge and practices.
• Traditional Knowledge: It refers to knowledge, skills, practices and cultural understanding developed and transmitted across generations within Indigenous communities.
• Self-determination: It refers to the right of Indigenous peoples to participate in decisions concerning their communities and determine their own social, cultural and developmental priorities.
• United Nations General Assembly: It is the main deliberative body of the United Nations, comprising all 193 UN member states, with each member state having one vote.

Tabular Summary:

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2. Which atomic bomb was dropped on Nagasaki on 9 August 1945?
A) Little Boy
B) Fat Man
C) Trinity
D) Thin Man
E) Gadget
Answer: B) Fat Man.

Event and Location:

• Event: Nagasaki Day 2026 is observed to commemorate the victims of the atomic bombing of Nagasaki during World War II and to highlight the humanitarian consequences of nuclear weapons.
• Location: The observance is associated with Nagasaki, Japan, and is marked internationally through remembrance and peace-related activities.
• Date: Nagasaki Day is observed annually on 9 August, commemorating the atomic bombing of Nagasaki on 9 August 1945.

Mandates and Objectives:

• Mandates: The observance remembers the victims and survivors of the Nagasaki bombing while promoting awareness about the destructive effects of nuclear warfare and the long-term consequences of radiation exposure.
• Objectives: Nagasaki Day aims to encourage peace, preserve the memory of the bombing, recognize survivors, increase public awareness of nuclear risks, and support global efforts toward nuclear disarmament.

Important Terms Explained:

• Fat Man: It was the plutonium-239 implosion-type atomic bomb dropped by the United States on Nagasaki on 9 August 1945, with an estimated explosive yield of about 21 kilotons of TNT.
• Bockscar: It was the B-29 Superfortress bomber that carried and dropped the atomic bomb on Nagasaki, piloted by Major Charles W. Sweeney.
• Hibakusha: The term refers to survivors of the atomic bombings of Hiroshima and Nagasaki who experienced the direct or long-term effects of the nuclear attacks.
• Nuclear Disarmament: It refers to efforts to reduce or eliminate nuclear weapons and prevent their future use, with the goal of lowering the risk of nuclear warfare.
• Plutonium-239: It is the fissile material used in the implosion-type atomic bomb dropped on Nagasaki.

Tabular Summary:

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3. On which date is World Brain Tumour Day observed annually?
A) 5 June
B) 7 June
C) 8 June
D) 10 June
E) 12 June
Answer: C) 8 June.

Event and Location:

• Event: World Brain Tumour Day is observed annually to raise awareness about brain tumours and emphasize early identification, diagnosis, treatment and patient support.
• Location: The observance is marked globally and was initiated by the German Brain Tumour Association in Germany.
• Date: World Brain Tumour Day is observed every year on 8 June and has been internationally observed since 2000.

Mandates and Objectives:

• Mandates: The observance promotes awareness about brain tumour symptoms, diagnosis and treatment while supporting patients, families, research and knowledge-sharing in neuro-oncology.
• Objectives: It aims to improve public understanding of brain tumours, encourage timely medical evaluation of persistent neurological symptoms, support affected individuals and promote advances in research and treatment.

Important Terms Explained:

• Brain Tumour: It is an abnormal growth of cells or tissues in the brain or nearby structures such as the meninges and may be benign or malignant.
• Benign Tumour: It is a non-cancerous growth that can still cause serious problems in the brain by compressing or damaging healthy tissue within the limited space of the skull.
• Malignant Tumour: It is a cancerous growth capable of invading surrounding tissue and potentially causing severe neurological complications.
• Neuro-oncology: It is the branch of medicine concerned with the diagnosis, treatment and study of tumours affecting the brain, spinal cord and nervous system.
• Magnetic Resonance Imaging (MRI): It is an imaging technique commonly used to obtain detailed images of the brain and help identify abnormalities such as tumours.

Tabular Summary:

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4. What is the theme of World Oceans Day 2026?
A) Planet Ocean: Tides Are Changing
B) Awaken New Depths
C) Reimagine: Beyond the world we know, a new relationship with our ocean
D) Revitalization: Collective Action for the Ocean
E) The Ocean: Life and Livelihoods
Answer: C) Reimagine: Beyond the world we know, a new relationship with our ocean.

Event and Location:

• Event: World Oceans Day is observed annually to highlight the importance of oceans and promote their conservation and sustainable management.
• Location: The observance is marked globally with the involvement of the United Nations, governments, organisations, communities and individuals.
• Date: World Oceans Day is observed every year on 8 June, including 8 June 2026.

Mandates and Objectives:

• Mandates: The observance promotes awareness about the effects of human activities on oceans, marine biodiversity conservation, pollution reduction, sustainable fisheries and responsible management of marine resources.
• Objectives: It aims to encourage a sustainable relationship between humanity and oceans, protect marine ecosystems, conserve biodiversity and ensure that ocean resources remain productive for future generations.

Important Terms Explained:

• Marine Biodiversity: It refers to the variety of living organisms found in oceans and other marine ecosystems, including plants, animals and microorganisms.
• Sustainable Ocean Management: It refers to the responsible use and protection of marine resources so that ocean ecosystems remain healthy and productive for present and future generations.
• Overfishing: It occurs when fish are harvested faster than their populations can naturally replenish, leading to declining fish stocks and disruption of marine food chains.
• Coral Reefs: They are diverse marine ecosystems formed primarily by coral organisms and provide habitat for numerous marine species, but are highly vulnerable to rising ocean temperatures and environmental degradation.
• United Nations Division for Ocean Affairs and the Law of the Sea (DOALOS): It is the UN division that organises World Oceans Day annually in collaboration with Oceanic Global.

Tabular Summary:

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5. Who gave the “Do or Die” call during the Quit India Movement in 1942?
A) Jawaharlal Nehru
B) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
C) Subhas Chandra Bose
D) Mahatma Gandhi
E) Maulana Abul Kalam Azad
Answer: D) Mahatma Gandhi.

Event and Location:

• Event: Quit India Movement Day 2026 is observed to commemorate the launch of the Quit India Movement of 1942 against British colonial rule in India.
• Location: The historic Quit India Resolution was passed at Gowalia Tank Maidan in Bombay, now known as August Kranti Maidan in Mumbai, Maharashtra.
• Date: Quit India Movement Day is observed on 8 August, marking the passage of the Quit India Resolution on 8 August 1942.

Mandates and Objectives:

• Mandates: The observance commemorates the 1942 mass movement led by the Indian National Congress demanding an immediate end to British rule and remembers the contribution of leaders, students, workers, peasants, women and ordinary citizens.
• Objectives: The day aims to honour the sacrifices of freedom fighters and highlight the ideals of freedom, unity, democracy and patriotism associated with India’s independence struggle.

Important Terms Explained:

• Quit India Movement: Also known as Bharat Chhodo Andolan or August Movement, it was a mass civil disobedience movement launched by the Indian National Congress in August 1942 demanding an immediate end to British rule in India.
• August Kranti Diwas: It is another name for Quit India Movement Day, observed on 8 August to commemorate the beginning of the historic movement in 1942.
• Quit India Resolution: It was the resolution adopted by the All India Congress Committee at its Bombay session on 8 August 1942 demanding the withdrawal of British rule from India.
• Cripps Mission: It was a British political initiative of 1942 whose proposals failed to satisfy Indian leaders because they did not provide for an immediate transfer of power.
• Congress Radio: It was an underground radio service associated with the Quit India Movement and was notably operated by Usha Mehta to spread information during British censorship and repression.

Tabular Summary:

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Sports – Daily Current Affairs August 08–09

6. Who became the first Indian to win the men’s individual gold medal at the FISU World University Squash Championship?
A) Abhay Singh
B) Velavan Senthilkumar
C) Suraj Kumar Chand
D) Ramit Tandon
E) Saurav Ghosal
Answer: C) Suraj Kumar Chand.

Event and Location:

• Event: Suraj Kumar Chand became the first Indian to win the men’s individual gold medal at the FISU World University Squash Championship after defeating Hungary’s Benedek Takacs in the final.
• Location: The championship was held at Somaiya Vidyavihar University in Mumbai, Maharashtra.
• Date: Suraj Kumar Chand won the historic title on 6 August 2026.

Mandates and Objectives:

• Mandates: The championship brought together university-level squash players from different countries, with Suraj Kumar Chand representing India in the men’s individual competition.
• Objectives: The competition aims to provide international competitive exposure to university athletes and promote high-level sporting performance among students.

Important Terms Explained:

• FISU: FISU is the international body associated with university sports competitions and organizes global sporting events for student-athletes.
• Squash: Squash is a racket sport played by two or four players in an enclosed court, where players strike a small rubber ball against the front wall.
• HCL PSA Indian Tour: It is a professional squash competition held in India under the Professional Squash Association framework, in which Suraj won an event in Chennai in April 2026 without losing a game.

Tabular Summary:

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Ranking – Daily Current Affairs August 08–09

7. What was the value of the FAO Food Price Index in July 2026?
A) 128.6 points
B) 129.4 points
C) 130.3 points
D) 131.1 points
E) 132.8 points
Answer: D) 131.1 points.

Event and Location:

• Event: The FAO Food Price Index rose to 131.1 points in July 2026, reaching its highest level since January 2023.
• Location: The index reflects international food commodity prices across global markets.
• Date: The July 2026 index data was reported in August 2026.

Mandates and Objectives:

• Mandates: The Food and Agriculture Organization (FAO) tracks changes in international prices of major food commodities through its Food Price Index, which increased by 0.6% month-on-month in July 2026.
• Objectives: The index aims to monitor global food commodity price movements and provide an indication of trends affecting international food markets, trade and food inflation.

Important Terms Explained:

• FAO Cereal Price Index: It measures changes in international prices of major cereals, and it increased by 3.4% in July 2026, mainly due to a 5.8% rise in wheat prices.
• FAO Vegetable Oil Price Index: It tracks international prices of major vegetable oils and rose by 2% in July 2026, reaching its highest level in about four years.
• FAO Sugar Price Index: It measures international sugar price movements and increased by 5.6% in July 2026 due to weather-related production concerns and expectations of stronger ethanol demand in Brazil.
• Biodiesel: It is a renewable fuel produced from vegetable oils, animal fats or other biological sources, and higher biodiesel demand can increase demand for oils such as palm and soybean oil.
• Ethanol: It is a biofuel that can be produced from sugarcane, and increased ethanol production in Brazil can reduce the amount of sugarcane available for sugar production.

Tabular Summary:

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Banking and Finance – Daily Current Affairs August 08–09

8. From which date will the RBI’s revised loan recovery framework come into effect?
A) 1 October 2026
B) 1 December 2026
C) 1 January 2027
D) 1 April 2027
E) 1 July 2027
Answer: C) 1 January 2027.

Event and Location:

• Event: The Reserve Bank of India issued revised loan recovery guidelines through nine circulars to standardize recovery practices and strengthen borrower protection.
• Location: The revised framework applies to RBI-regulated lenders across India.
• Date: The RBI issued the circulars on 6 August 2026, and the revised framework will take effect from 1 January 2027.

Mandates and Objectives:

• Mandates: The new rules restrict recovery calls and visits to between 8:00 AM and 7:00 PM, require at least one day’s prior notice before the first physical visit, mandate retention of recovery call recordings for at least six months, regulate remote locking of financed devices, and require recovery agents to obtain prescribed certification.
• Objectives: The framework aims to create uniform and fair loan recovery practices, protect borrowers from inappropriate recovery methods, improve accountability and documentation, regulate technology-based recovery measures, and provide lenders sufficient time to align their systems with the revised requirements.

Important Terms Explained:

• Loan Recovery Framework: It refers to the RBI-prescribed rules governing how regulated lenders and recovery agents may contact borrowers and undertake recovery activities for overdue loans.
• Recovery Agent: A recovery agent is a person engaged by a bank or financial institution to contact borrowers regarding overdue payments and assist in the recovery process.
• Remote Device Locking: It refers to technology that enables a lender to restrict the functionality of a financed device, such as a mobile phone or tablet, when payments remain overdue.
• Indian Institute of Banking and Finance (IIBF): It is the institution specified in the revised framework for certification of recovery agents before they are hired.
• Non-Banking Financial Company (NBFC): It is a financial institution regulated by the RBI that provides services such as loans and credit without operating as a conventional bank.

Tabular Summary:

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Defence – Daily Current Affairs August 08–09

9. Which aircraft played a major role in precision strikes during Operation Safed Sagar in the 1999 Kargil War?
A) MiG-21
B) Mirage-2000
C) Sukhoi Su-30MKI
D) Jaguar
E) MiG-29
Answer: B) Mirage-2000.

Event and Location:

• Event: Operation Safed Sagar was the Indian Air Force’s combat air operation conducted in support of Indian Army operations during the Kargil War of 1999.
• Location: The operation was conducted in the Kargil conflict zone, including Mushko Valley, Drass, Kaksar, Batalik and Turtok along the Line of Control.
• Date: Operation Safed Sagar commenced in May 1999 during the Kargil War.

Mandates and Objectives:

• Mandates: The Indian Air Force carried out reconnaissance, precision air strikes, disruption of enemy logistics, air defence, escort missions and helicopter support while operating under instructions not to cross the Line of Control.
• Objectives: The operation aimed to support Operation Vijay by weakening enemy positions at high altitudes, disrupting their supply lines, assisting Indian ground forces and improving battlefield effectiveness through coordinated air-ground operations.

Important Terms Explained:

• Operation Safed Sagar: It was the Indian Air Force’s air campaign during the 1999 Kargil War to provide aerial support to Indian ground forces fighting enemy positions in difficult high-altitude terrain.
• Operation Vijay: It was India’s military operation to reclaim strategic positions occupied by Pakistani troops and military personnel in the Kargil sector.
• Laser-Guided Bombs: These are precision-guided weapons that use laser designation to strike selected targets with greater accuracy than conventional unguided bombs.
• Electronic Intelligence (ELINT): It refers to the collection and analysis of electronic signals to identify enemy systems, positions and operational activities.
• Line of Control (LoC): It is the military control line separating Indian- and Pakistani-administered areas of Jammu and Kashmir, which Indian Air Force aircraft were instructed not to cross during the operation.

Tabular Summary:

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Schemes – Daily Current Affairs August 08–09

10. Which ministry launched the Har Ghar Tiranga 2026 campaign on 6 August 2026?
A) Ministry of Home Affairs
B) Ministry of Culture
C) Ministry of Defence
D) Ministry of External Affairs
E) Ministry of Education
Answer: B) Ministry of Culture.

Event and Location:

• Event: The Ministry of Culture launched the Har Ghar Tiranga 2026 campaign as part of India’s Independence Day celebrations.
• Location: The campaign was launched in New Delhi and will be conducted nationwide across India.
• Date: The campaign was launched on 6 August 2026 and will run from 9 August to 17 August 2026.

Mandates and Objectives:

• Mandates: The campaign promotes the display and hoisting of the Tiranga, mass singing of Vande Mataram, digital participation through Selfie with Tiranga, observance of Partition Horrors Remembrance Day, and the Suryapath Tiranga global relay.
• Objectives: The campaign aims to encourage citizen participation in Independence Day celebrations, commemorate the 150th anniversary of Vande Mataram, promote respect for the national flag, and connect Indians in India and abroad with national celebrations.

Important Terms Explained:

• Har Ghar Tiranga: It is a nationwide public participation campaign launched in 2022 under Azadi Ka Amrit Mahotsav to encourage citizens to display the national flag and participate actively in Independence Day celebrations.
• Vande Mataram: It is India’s National Song, whose 150th anniversary is a special focus of the 2026 Har Ghar Tiranga campaign.
• Suryapath Tiranga: It is a global flag relay initiative announced by the Ministry of External Affairs involving Indian embassies and consulates across 54 countries, with flag-hoisting ceremonies digitally tracked and broadcast from 14 to 15 August 2026.
• Selfie with Tiranga: It is a digital participation initiative that allows citizens to upload selfies with the national flag through the official Har Ghar Tiranga platform.
• Partition Horrors Remembrance Day: It is observed on 14 August to remember the suffering, displacement and loss experienced during the Partition of India in 1947.

Tabular Summary:

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11. Who are the primary beneficiaries of the Delhi Vidya Vahini Scheme 2026?
A) Class 8 boys in Delhi government schools
B) Class 9 girl students in eligible Delhi schools
C) College-going women in Delhi
D) Class 10 students in private schools
E) All school students in Delhi
Answer: B) Class 9 girl students in eligible Delhi schools.

Event and Location:

• Event: The Delhi Vidya Vahini Scheme 2026 provides free bicycles to eligible Class 9 girl students to support continued school education and easier commuting.
• Location: The scheme applies to eligible students studying in government and government-aided schools in Delhi.
• Date: The scheme is being implemented in 2026 through eligible schools in Delhi.

Mandates and Objectives:

• Mandates: The scheme requires schools to identify eligible Class 9 girl students, verify their records and documents, prepare beneficiary details and facilitate bicycle distribution without requiring a separate external online application.
• Objectives: The scheme aims to improve school attendance, reduce dropout rates, make commuting safer and easier, improve access to education and encourage girls to continue their studies.

Important Terms Explained:

• Delhi Vidya Vahini Scheme: It is a Delhi government initiative that provides free bicycles to eligible Class 9 girl students studying in government or government-aided schools.
• Institutional Registration: It refers to the school-based process under which teachers and school authorities identify eligible students, verify documents and upload beneficiary details instead of requiring students to register independently through a public portal.
• Beneficiary Verification: It is the process through which school authorities check a student’s eligibility, academic records, identity and supporting documents before including her in the beneficiary list.
• Government-Aided School: It is a school that receives financial assistance from the government while operating under prescribed educational and administrative conditions.

Tabular Summary:

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National Affairs – Daily Current Affairs August 08–09

12. What minimum share of the awarded amount can a court order to be paid to an MSME supplier if a challenge remains pending for more than six months under the Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises Development (Amendment) Bill, 2026?
A) 25%
B) 30%
C) 40%
D) 50%
E) 75%
Answer: D) 50%.

Event and Location:

• Event: The Lok Sabha passed the Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises Development (Amendment) Bill, 2026 after it had earlier been cleared by the Rajya Sabha.
• Location: The Bill was passed by the Parliament of India in New Delhi.
• Date: The Rajya Sabha passed the Bill on 3 August 2026, followed by the Lok Sabha on 7 August 2026.

Mandates and Objectives:

• Mandates: The Bill provides for faster resolution of delayed-payment disputes, recovery of amounts under settlement agreements, and payment of at least 50% of the awarded sum to an MSME supplier when a challenge to the award remains pending for more than six months.
• Objectives: The legislation aims to reduce payment delays, improve cash flow and liquidity for micro, small and medium enterprises, and shorten the duration of disputes involving amounts due to MSME suppliers.

Important Terms Explained:

• MSME: MSME stands for Micro, Small and Medium Enterprise and refers to businesses classified under prescribed investment and turnover criteria.
• Delayed Payments: These are payments due to MSME suppliers that are not made within the applicable period, potentially creating working-capital and cash-flow difficulties for small businesses.
• Dispute Resolution: It refers to the legal or institutional process used to settle disagreements over payments, contractual obligations or amounts due between parties.
• Liquidity: It refers to the availability of cash or easily accessible funds required by a business to meet short-term obligations such as wages, raw-material costs, loan repayments and operating expenses.
• Settlement Agreement: It is an agreement reached between disputing parties to resolve a claim, under which the Bill provides mechanisms for recovery of amounts due.

Tabular Summary:

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13. According to the Centre’s stand before the Supreme Court, the creamy layer principle has traditionally been applied to which category?
A) Scheduled Castes
B) Scheduled Tribes
C) Other Backward Classes
D) Economically Weaker Sections
E) Religious minorities
Answer: C) Other Backward Classes.

Event and Location:

• Event: The Union government informed the Supreme Court that the creamy layer principle applicable to OBCs should not automatically be extended to Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes.
• Location: The matter is before the Supreme Court of India and concerns India’s constitutional reservation framework.
• Date: The Centre’s position was reported in August 2026 against the backdrop of the Supreme Court’s 2024 judgment permitting evidence-based sub-classification within SC and ST categories.

Mandates and Objectives:

• Mandates: The Centre argued that reservation for SCs and STs is based on historical discrimination, social backwardness, caste or tribal status, inadequate representation and persistent social disadvantage rather than solely on economic criteria.
• Objectives: The government’s position seeks to ensure that any mechanism affecting reservation benefits for SCs and STs accounts for their distinct historical and structural disadvantages and is supported by comprehensive empirical study.

Important Terms Explained:

• Creamy Layer: It refers to the relatively advanced sections within a backward class that are excluded from certain reservation benefits, a principle established for OBCs through the Supreme Court’s Indra Sawhney judgment of 1992.
• Sub-classification: It refers to dividing a reserved category into smaller groups so that reservation benefits can be distributed more effectively among communities experiencing different levels of disadvantage.
• Indra Sawhney v. Union of India (1992): It is the landmark Supreme Court judgment that upheld OBC reservation while requiring exclusion of the relatively advanced creamy layer from OBC reservation benefits.
• E.V. Chinnaiah v. State of Andhra Pradesh (2004): It was an earlier Supreme Court judgment relating to sub-classification within Scheduled Castes that was set aside by the Court’s 2024 majority ruling.
• Economically Weaker Sections (EWS): It is a reservation category based primarily on economic criteria and is distinct from the creamy layer principle applicable to OBC reservation.

Tabular Summary:

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Over All Review

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