Daily Current Affairs September 16
Table of Contents
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September 16 | Daily Current Affairs 2026
Important Days – Daily Current Affairs September 16
1. What is the theme of World Ozone Day 2026?
A) Protect Ozone, Protect Earth
B) Global Action for a Cooler Planet – Celebrating 10 Years of Sustainable Cooling under the Kigali Amendment to the Montreal Protocol
C) Ozone for Life and Climate
D) Sustainable Earth for Future Generations
E) Cooling the Planet through Green Energy
Answer: B) Global Action for a Cooler Planet – Celebrating 10 Years of Sustainable Cooling under the Kigali Amendment to the Montreal Protocol.
Event and Location:
- Event: World Ozone Day 2026 was observed to raise awareness about protecting the ozone layer and marked 10 years since the adoption of the Kigali Amendment.
- Location: The observance is global and focuses on international cooperation for ozone protection and sustainable cooling.
- Date: 16 September 2026.
Mandates and Objectives:
- Mandates: The observance promotes awareness about ozone-layer protection, ozone depletion, sustainable refrigeration, global environmental cooperation and the phasedown of harmful greenhouse gases.
- Objectives: It aims to protect the ozone layer from harmful substances, reduce exposure to ultraviolet radiation and strengthen the link between ozone protection and climate action.
Important Terms Explained:
- Montreal Protocol: It is an international environmental agreement designed to regulate and phase out man-made substances responsible for depletion of the ozone layer.
- Kigali Amendment: Adopted in 2016 and effective from 2019, it brought hydrofluorocarbons under the regulatory framework of the Montreal Protocol for their phasedown due to their high global warming potential.
- Hydrofluorocarbons (HFCs): These are greenhouse gases widely used in cooling applications that do not deplete the ozone layer but have high global warming potential.
- Ozone Layer: It is a protective layer in the atmosphere that absorbs much of the Sun’s harmful ultraviolet radiation.
- Vienna Convention: Signed in 1985 and effective from 1988, it established a framework for international cooperation in ozone research, monitoring and exchange of scientific information.
Tabular Summary:
| Parameter | Details |
| Observance | World Ozone Day 2026. |
| Date | 16 September 2026. |
| Theme | Global Action for a Cooler Planet – Celebrating 10 Years of Sustainable Cooling under the Kigali Amendment to the Montreal Protocol. |
| Key milestone | The observance marked the 10th anniversary of the Kigali Amendment adopted in 2016. |
| Main purpose | To raise awareness about ozone protection, sustainable cooling and environmental cooperation. |
| Vienna Convention | It was signed in 1985 and came into effect in 1988. |
| Montreal Protocol | It regulates and phases out ozone-depleting substances and covers around 100 man-made chemicals. |
| Kigali Amendment | It targets the phasedown of HFCs because of their high global warming potential. |
Sports – Daily Current Affairs September 16
2. Which cricketer surpassed Sachin Tendulkar to record the longest men’s ODI career?
A) Sanath Jayasuriya
B) Brendan Taylor
C) Chris Gayle
D) Shahid Afridi
E) Jacques Kallis
Answer: B) Brendan Taylor.
Event and Location:
- Event: Zimbabwe wicketkeeper-batter Brendan Taylor surpassed Sachin Tendulkar to become the men’s cricketer with the longest ODI career, spanning 22 years and 148 days.
- Location: The record was achieved during the first ODI between Zimbabwe and Australia in Harare, Zimbabwe.
- Date: 15 September 2026.
Mandates and Objectives:
- Mandates: Brendan Taylor’s participation against Australia extended his ODI career to 22 years and 148 days, exceeding Sachin Tendulkar’s previous record of 22 years and 91 days.
- Objectives: The career-longevity record measures the total span between a player’s ODI debut and latest ODI appearance rather than the number of matches played or runs scored.
Important Terms Explained:
- One Day International (ODI): It is a form of international cricket in which each team generally plays a maximum of 50 overs.
- Career Longevity: It refers to the total period between a player’s first and most recent appearance in a particular format.
- Wicketkeeper-Batter: It refers to a cricketer who performs wicketkeeping duties while also contributing as a specialist batter.
Tabular Summary:
| Parameter | Details |
| Record holder | Brendan Taylor of Zimbabwe. |
| Record | Longest men’s ODI career. |
| Career span | 22 years and 148 days. |
| Previous record holder | Sachin Tendulkar with an ODI career of 22 years and 91 days. |
| Record-breaking match | First ODI between Zimbabwe and Australia. |
| Venue | Harare, Zimbabwe. |
| Third on the list | Sanath Jayasuriya with an ODI career of 21 years and 184 days. |
| Taylor’s ODI debut | He made his ODI debut against Sri Lanka in April 2004. |
Ranking – Daily Current Affairs September 16
3. What rank did HDFC Bank secure in the World’s Best Performing Banks 2026 ranking?
A) 1st
B) 2nd
C) 3rd
D) 4th
E) 5th
Answer: C) 3rd.
Event and Location:
- Event: HDFC Bank ranked third globally in the World’s Best Performing Banks 2026 ranking released by Forbes in collaboration with Statista.
- Location: The ranking covered leading banks across the world.
- Date: 16 September 2026.
Mandates and Objectives:
- Mandates: The ranking assessed eligible banks using financial indicators related to profitability, capital and funding strength, asset and operational efficiency, and growth and quality of earnings.
- Objectives: The ranking aims to compare the performance, financial resilience, efficiency, asset quality and earnings strength of major banks globally.
Important Terms Explained:
- World’s Best Performing Banks 2026: It is a global banking ranking prepared by Forbes in collaboration with Statista using financial performance and research-based criteria.
- Profitability: It measures how effectively a bank generates profits and carried a 30% weight in the ranking methodology.
- Capital and Funding Strength: It assesses a bank’s financial stability and funding capacity and carried a 25% weight.
- Asset and Operational Efficiency: It evaluates asset quality and operational efficiency and accounted for 25% of the ranking methodology.
- Growth and Quality of Earnings: It measures the strength, sustainability and growth of a bank’s earnings and carried a 20% weight.
Tabular Summary:
| Parameter | Details |
| Ranking | World’s Best Performing Banks 2026. |
| Top-ranked bank | OCBC of Singapore secured first place. |
| Second-ranked bank | DBS Singapore secured second place. |
| India’s position | HDFC Bank ranked third globally. |
| Indian representation | HDFC Bank was the only Indian bank among the global top 10. |
| Publishers | Forbes prepared the ranking in collaboration with Statista. |
| Highest-weight criterion | Profitability carried the highest weight at 30%. |
| US representation | JPMorgan Chase, Wells Fargo and PNC Financial Services were the three US banks in the top 10. |
Banking and Finance – Daily Current Affairs September 16
4. What MDR is proposed for specified UPI person-to-merchant transactions exceeding ₹2,000?
A) 0.02%
B) 0.10%
C) 0.25%
D) 0.40%
E) 0.50%
Answer: D) 0.40%.
Event and Location:
- Event: A proposed UPI payment framework provides for a 0.4% Merchant Discount Rate on specified person-to-merchant transactions above ₹2,000, while person-to-person payments and eligible small-value merchant transactions remain free.
- Location: The proposed payment framework applies across India.
- Date: 16 September 2026.
Mandates and Objectives:
- Mandates: Person-to-person UPI payments will remain free irrespective of value, merchant payments up to ₹2,000 will have zero MDR, while specified merchant payments above ₹2,000 will attract differentiated MDR rates.
- Objectives: The framework seeks to maintain free UPI access for individuals and small merchants while generating revenue from selected merchant transactions to support the sustainability and expansion of the digital payments ecosystem.
Important Terms Explained:
- Unified Payments Interface (UPI): It is a real-time digital payment system that enables instant bank-to-bank fund transfers through participating applications.
- Merchant Discount Rate (MDR): It is a fee charged within the merchant payment ecosystem for processing eligible digital transactions and is generally borne by the merchant rather than the customer.
- Person-to-Person (P2P) Transaction: It is a UPI payment made directly from one individual to another and will remain free irrespective of the transaction value.
- Person-to-Merchant (P2M) Transaction: It is a payment made by an individual to a merchant, with specified transactions above ₹2,000 proposed to attract an MDR of 0.4%.
- P2PM Category: It covers qualifying small merchants receiving UPI QR payments, with merchants receiving up to ₹1 lakh per month continuing under the zero-MDR framework.
Tabular Summary:
| Parameter | Details |
| P2P transactions | All person-to-person UPI payments will remain free irrespective of transaction value. |
| P2M up to ₹2,000 | Merchant transactions up to ₹2,000 will remain free of MDR. |
| Specified P2M above ₹2,000 | An MDR of 0.4% will apply to eligible transactions. |
| High-value MDR cap | Transactions of ₹75,000 or more will have MDR capped at ₹300 per transaction. |
| Essential sectors | Eligible payments above ₹2,000 in sectors such as railways, telecom, insurance, fuel and agricultural inputs will attract a flat ₹5 MDR. |
| Capital market transactions | Eligible transactions will attract an MDR of 0.02%, subject to a ceiling of ₹300 per transaction. |
| Small merchants | Qualifying merchants receiving up to ₹1 lakh per month through UPI QR codes will continue to receive zero-MDR treatment. |
| Dedicated fund | An amount equal to 5% of total MDR collections is proposed for a fund to promote UPI adoption among small merchants. |
5. To what amount has the Union Cabinet raised the EPFO wage ceiling for mandatory social security coverage?
A) ₹18,000
B) ₹20,000
C) ₹22,000
D) ₹25,000
E) ₹30,000
Answer: D) ₹25,000.
Event and Location:
- Event: The Union Cabinet approved an increase in the EPFO wage ceiling for mandatory social security coverage from ₹15,000 to ₹25,000 per month.
- Location: The revised EPFO wage ceiling applies across India.
- Date: 16 September 2026.
Mandates and Objectives:
- Mandates: The decision expands mandatory EPFO coverage to more employees by raising the monthly wage threshold from ₹15,000 to ₹25,000, with more than 51 lakh additional workers expected to come under the social security framework.
- Objectives: The revision aims to expand retirement, pension and insurance coverage, align mandatory social security with prevailing wage levels and support greater formalisation of employment.
Important Terms Explained:
- Employees’ Provident Fund Organisation (EPFO): It is the organisation responsible for administering major social security schemes for eligible employees, including provident fund, pension and insurance benefits.
- Employees’ Provident Fund (EPF): It is a retirement savings scheme under which eligible employees and employers make regular contributions toward the employee’s provident fund account.
- Employees’ Pension Scheme (EPS): It is an EPFO-administered scheme that provides pension benefits to eligible members and their families.
- Employees’ Deposit Linked Insurance (EDLI): It provides life insurance coverage to eligible EPF members.
- Expenditure Finance Committee (EFC): It is a government committee that examines the financial implications of major expenditure proposals before implementation.
Tabular Summary:
| Parameter | Details |
| Decision | The Union Cabinet raised the EPFO wage ceiling for mandatory coverage. |
| Previous ceiling | ₹15,000 per month. |
| Revised ceiling | ₹25,000 per month. |
| Additional beneficiaries | More than 51 lakh workers are expected to gain mandatory EPFO coverage. |
| Last major revision | The previous ₹15,000 ceiling had been in place since September 2014. |
| Annual budget requirement | The revised framework is estimated to require about ₹11,339 crore annually. |
| Five-year expenditure | The estimated expenditure over five years is about ₹56,696 crore. |
| EPFO schemes | EPFO administers EPF, EPS and EDLI. |
Business and Economy – Daily Current Affairs September 16
6. What was India’s Labour Force Participation Rate (LFPR) for persons aged 15 years and above in August 2026?
A) 52.8%
B) 54.9%
C) 55.4%
D) 55.6%
E) 58.2%
Answer: D) 55.6%.
Event and Location:
- Event: India’s Labour Force Participation Rate for persons aged 15 years and above increased to 55.6% in August 2026 from 55.4% in July 2026.
- Location: The labour market estimates cover rural and urban areas across India.
- Date: 16 September 2026.
Mandates and Objectives:
- Mandates: The National Statistical Office released monthly labour market estimates covering LFPR, Worker Population Ratio and unemployment rate under the Periodic Labour Force Survey.
- Objectives: The survey aims to measure labour force participation, employment and unemployment trends across rural and urban India.
Important Terms Explained:
- Labour Force Participation Rate (LFPR): It is the percentage of persons in the population who are either employed or actively seeking or available for work.
- Worker Population Ratio (WPR): It is the percentage of employed persons in the total population.
- Periodic Labour Force Survey (PLFS): It is a labour market survey conducted by the National Statistical Office under the Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation to estimate employment and unemployment indicators.
- Current Weekly Status (CWS): It is the methodology used for monthly PLFS estimates based on a person’s activity status during the seven days preceding the survey.
Tabular Summary:
| Parameter | Details |
| Overall LFPR | India’s LFPR rose to 55.6% in August 2026 from 55.4% in July. |
| Rural LFPR | Rural LFPR increased to 58.2% from 58.0%. |
| Urban LFPR | Urban LFPR remained unchanged at 50.4%. |
| Overall WPR | WPR increased to 52.8% from 52.5% in July. |
| Rural WPR | Rural WPR rose to 55.8% from 55.4%. |
| Overall unemployment rate | The unemployment rate declined to 5.0% from 5.1%. |
| Rural unemployment rate | Rural unemployment declined to 4.1% from 4.5%. |
| Survey coverage | August estimates were based on responses from 3,70,160 persons across rural and urban India. |
Appointments – Daily Current Affairs September 16
7. Who became the first woman IPS officer to lead the Commando Battalion for Resolute Action (CoBRA) of the CRPF?
A) Seema Dhundia
B) Kavita Jalan
C) Sanjukta Parashar
D) Vijaya Laxmi
E) Archana Shivhare
Answer: C) Sanjukta Parashar.
Event and Location:
- Event: IPS officer Sanjukta Parashar became the first woman officer to lead the CRPF’s Commando Battalion for Resolute Action, an elite force specialising in jungle warfare and counter-insurgency operations.
- Location: CoBRA units operate in insurgency-affected and jungle regions, including areas of Chhattisgarh, Jharkhand and Manipur.
- Date: 16 September 2026.
Mandates and Objectives:
- Mandates: CoBRA personnel are specially trained for jungle warfare, counter-insurgency operations and missions against armed extremist groups in difficult terrain.
- Objectives: The appointment strengthens women’s representation in senior operational command roles while utilising Sanjukta Parashar’s experience in counter-insurgency, policing and counter-terror investigations.
Important Terms Explained:
- Commando Battalion for Resolute Action (CoBRA): It is a specialised unit of the Central Reserve Police Force trained for jungle warfare and counter-insurgency operations.
- Central Reserve Police Force (CRPF): It is a central armed police force responsible for assisting in internal security, counter-insurgency and law-and-order duties.
- Counter-Insurgency: It refers to security operations undertaken to counter armed insurgent groups and restore stability in affected regions.
- National Investigation Agency (NIA): It is a central investigating agency that handles specified terrorism and national-security-related offences.
- Rapid Action Force (RAF): It is a specialised wing of the CRPF trained primarily for riot control, crowd management and public-order situations.
Tabular Summary:
| Parameter | Details |
| Officer | Sanjukta Parashar. |
| Historic achievement | She became the first woman IPS officer to lead CRPF’s CoBRA unit. |
| IPS batch and cadre | She is a 2006-batch IPS officer of the Assam-Meghalaya cadre. |
| Specialised force | CoBRA is trained for jungle warfare and counter-insurgency operations. |
| Previous organisations | She has served in the Assam Police and the National Investigation Agency. |
| Previous role | She previously headed the CID wing of Assam Police. |
| Operational experience | She has handled counter-insurgency and counter-terrorism-related assignments. |
| Women in CRPF leadership | Her appointment reflects the growing presence of women officers in senior operational and command positions. |
Awards – Daily Current Affairs September 16
8. Who will receive the Padmabhushan Guru Dr Saroja Vaidyanathan Excellence Award 2026?
A) Alarmel Valli
B) Malavika Sarukkai
C) Vasundhara Doraswamy
D) Sonal Mansingh
E) Geeta Chandran
Answer: C) Vasundhara Doraswamy.
Event and Location:
- Event: Bharatanatyam performer, choreographer and researcher Dr Vasundhara Doraswamy will receive the Padmabhushan Guru Dr Saroja Vaidyanathan Excellence Award 2026 for her contribution to Indian classical dance.
- Location: The award will be presented at the Vysakhi Nrithyotsav Indian Dance Festival in Visakhapatnam, Andhra Pradesh.
- Date: The festival will be held on 26-27 September 2026.
Mandates and Objectives:
- Mandates: The Nataraj Music & Dance Academy will confer the award on Vasundhara Doraswamy during Vysakhi Nrithyotsav in recognition of her more than five decades of performance, research, choreography and teaching in Bharatanatyam.
- Objectives: The recognition aims to honour significant contributions to Indian classical dance and promote the preservation and propagation of traditional dance forms.
Important Terms Explained:
- Bharatanatyam: It is a major Indian classical dance form known for its codified movements, expressive gestures, rhythmic footwork and storytelling traditions.
- Ashtanga Vinyasa Yoga: It is a structured form of yoga involving a prescribed sequence of postures linked with controlled breathing and movement, an area Vasundhara Doraswamy has connected with Bharatanatyam through her research.
- Vysakhi Nrithyotsav: It is an annual Indian dance festival organised by the Nataraj Music & Dance Academy to promote classical dance and honour distinguished artistes.
- Nataraj Music & Dance Academy (NMDA): It is a cultural organisation established by BR Vikram Kumar that provides a platform for Indian classical dance through events such as Vysakhi Nrithyotsav.
Tabular Summary:
| Parameter | Details |
| Awardee | Dr Vasundhara Doraswamy. |
| Award | Padmabhushan Guru Dr Saroja Vaidyanathan Excellence Award 2026. |
| Field | Bharatanatyam and Indian classical dance. |
| Awarding organisation | Nataraj Music & Dance Academy. |
| Event | Vysakhi Nrithyotsav Indian Dance Festival. |
| Venue | Visakhapatnam, Andhra Pradesh. |
| Festival dates | 26-27 September 2026. |
| Major contribution | She is known for linking Bharatanatyam with Ashtanga Vinyasa Yoga through performance and research. |
9. Who has been selected for the Dadasaheb Phalke Award 2024 to be presented at the 72nd National Film Awards?
A) Mohanlal
B) Mithun Chakraborty
C) Anant Nag
D) Girish Karnad
E) Amol Palekar
Answer: C) Anant Nag.
Event and Location:
- Event: Veteran Kannada actor Anant Nag has been selected for the Dadasaheb Phalke Award 2024 for his outstanding contribution to the growth and development of Indian cinema.
- Location: The award will be presented at the 72nd National Film Awards ceremony in Ekta Nagar, Kevadia, Gujarat.
- Date: 22 September 2026.
Mandates and Objectives:
- Mandates: The Ministry of Information and Broadcasting selected Anant Nag for the award in recognition of his decades-long contribution to cinema, theatre and television across multiple Indian languages.
- Objectives: The award aims to recognise distinguished lifetime contributions to the growth and development of Indian cinema.
Important Terms Explained:
- Dadasaheb Phalke Award: It is an annual honour under the National Film Awards presented for distinguished contribution to Indian cinema and carries a Swarna Kamal, ₹15 lakh cash prize and a shawl.
- National Film Awards: These are national-level awards recognising excellence and distinguished contributions across different areas of Indian cinema.
- Swarna Kamal: It is the Golden Lotus honour presented as part of major categories under the National Film Awards, including the Dadasaheb Phalke Award.
- Parallel Cinema: It refers to an Indian film movement known for realistic, socially relevant and non-mainstream storytelling, in which Anant Nag has also worked.
Tabular Summary:
| Parameter | Details |
| Awardee | Anant Nag. |
| Award | Dadasaheb Phalke Award 2024. |
| Ceremony | 72nd National Film Awards. |
| Presentation date | 22 September 2026. |
| Venue | Ekta Nagar, Kevadia, Gujarat. |
| Career contribution | Anant Nag has acted in more than 300 films, including over 250 Kannada films. |
| Award components | The honour includes a Swarna Kamal, ₹15 lakh cash prize and a shawl. |
| Previous major honour | Anant Nag received the Padma Bhushan in 2025. |
Defence – Daily Current Affairs September 16
10. Where did the India-US joint military exercise Yudh Abhyas 2026 commence?
A) Leh
B) Auli
C) Jaisalmer
D) Dehradun
E) Bikaner
Answer: B) Auli.
Event and Location:
- Event: India and the United States began the joint military exercise Yudh Abhyas 2026 to enhance interoperability, joint planning and operational coordination between their armies.
- Location: The exercise is being conducted at Auli Foreign Training Node in Uttarakhand and Mahajan Field Firing Range in Rajasthan.
- Date: 15 September 2026.
Mandates and Objectives:
- Mandates: The exercise involves 600 personnel from each country and includes training in Integrated Battle Group operations, infantry-dominated warfare, surveillance, reconnaissance, drones, autonomous systems and modern weapons.
- Objectives: The exercise aims to strengthen India-US military cooperation and improve joint operational capabilities in mountainous, semi-mountainous and multi-domain warfare environments.
Important Terms Explained:
- Yudh Abhyas: It is a joint military exercise between the Indian Army and the US Army designed to improve interoperability, coordination and exchange of operational practices.
- Integrated Battle Groups: These are flexible combat formations that combine different military capabilities to conduct coordinated operations according to mission requirements.
- Autonomous Systems: These are technology-enabled platforms capable of performing certain operational tasks with limited direct human intervention.
- Multi-Domain Warfare: It refers to coordinated military operations across multiple domains such as land, air, cyber, space and the electromagnetic spectrum.
- Surveillance and Reconnaissance: These activities involve observing operational areas and gathering information about terrain, threats and adversary movements.
Tabular Summary:
| Parameter | Details |
| Exercise name | Yudh Abhyas 2026. |
| Participating countries | India and the United States. |
| Start date | 15 September 2026. |
| Locations | Auli Foreign Training Node, Uttarakhand, and Mahajan Field Firing Range, Rajasthan. |
| Troop strength | 600 personnel from each country. |
| Operational focus | Mountainous and semi-mountainous warfare using Integrated Battle Groups. |
| Technology focus | Drones, autonomous systems, surveillance, reconnaissance and modern weapons. |
| Senior representatives | Major General Amaresh Gunjan and Colonel Benjamin Jackman attended the opening ceremony. |
Schemes – Daily Current Affairs September 16
11. How many artisans and craftspeople were registered under the PM Vishwakarma Scheme after completing the three-stage verification process by its third anniversary?
A) 18.15 lakh
B) 20 lakh
C) 24.50 lakh
D) 30 lakh
E) 35 lakh
Answer: D) 30 lakh.
Event and Location:
- Event: PM Vishwakarma completed three years with 30 lakh artisans and craftspeople registered after the mandatory three-stage verification process.
- Location: The third-anniversary celebrations are being held at Dhono Dhanyo Auditorium in Kolkata, West Bengal.
- Date: 17 September 2026.
Mandates and Objectives:
- Mandates: The scheme provides traditional artisans and craftspeople in 18 identified trades with certification, skill training, toolkit support, concessional credit, digital transaction incentives and marketing assistance.
- Objectives: The scheme aims to strengthen traditional skills, improve productivity, expand access to institutional finance and modern tools, and support sustainable livelihoods for artisans and craftspeople.
Important Terms Explained:
- PM Vishwakarma Scheme: It is a Central government scheme launched on 17 September 2023 to provide end-to-end support to traditional artisans and craftspeople across 18 identified trades.
- Basic Skill Training: It provides skill upgradation to registered Vishwakarmas, with 24.50 lakh beneficiaries having received training by the third anniversary.
- Concessional Credit: It refers to affordable institutional loans provided under the scheme, with eligible beneficiaries receiving loan support at an interest rate of 5% per annum.
- Toolkit Incentive: It supports artisans with improved tools intended to enhance productivity and efficiency, with 18.15 lakh toolkits distributed through India Post.
- Three-Stage Verification: It is the mandatory beneficiary verification process required before artisans and craftspeople are formally registered under the scheme.
Tabular Summary:
| Parameter | Details |
| Scheme | PM Vishwakarma Scheme. |
| Launch date | 17 September 2023. |
| Third anniversary | 17 September 2026. |
| Registered beneficiaries | 30 lakh artisans and craftspeople completed the three-stage verification process. |
| Basic skill training | 24.50 lakh Vishwakarmas received Basic Skill Training. |
| Credit support | 6.18 lakh beneficiaries received loans, with ₹5,297 crore disbursed at 5% annual interest. |
| Toolkit distribution | 18.15 lakh improved toolkits were delivered through India Post. |
| Anniversary venue | Dhono Dhanyo Auditorium, Kolkata, West Bengal. |
National Affairs – Daily Current Affairs September 16
12. On which river is the Kishau Dam Project proposed to be constructed?
A) Sutlej
B) Beas
C) Tons
D) Ravi
E) Chenab
Answer: C) Tons.
Event and Location:
- Event: Six states and the Centre signed a Memorandum of Understanding for the ₹15,624-crore Kishau Dam Project, clearing a major hurdle that had delayed the multipurpose project for nearly eight years.
- Location: The dam is proposed on the Tons River along the Himachal Pradesh-Uttarakhand border.
- Date: 15 September 2026.
Mandates and Objectives:
- Mandates: The project involves construction of a 232.6-metre-high concrete gravity dam with 1,562 MCM of live storage capacity and a 660 MW hydropower facility.
- Objectives: The project aims to provide irrigation, drinking and industrial water, generate electricity and augment water flow into the Yamuna River.
Important Terms Explained:
- Memorandum of Understanding (MoU): It is a formal agreement outlining cooperation and responsibilities among participating parties, with Himachal Pradesh, Haryana, Delhi, Rajasthan, Uttar Pradesh, Uttarakhand and the Centre joining the arrangement.
- Concrete Gravity Dam: It is a massive concrete structure designed to resist the pressure of stored water primarily through its own weight.
- Live Storage Capacity: It refers to the usable volume of water in a reservoir that can be released for purposes such as irrigation, drinking water and power generation.
- Flow Augmentation: It refers to increasing the quantity of water flowing through a river system, with the project intended to enhance flows into the Yamuna.
Tabular Summary:
| Parameter | Details |
| Project name | Kishau Dam Project. |
| Estimated cost | ₹15,624 crore. |
| River | Tons River, a tributary of the Yamuna. |
| Participating states | Himachal Pradesh, Haryana, Delhi, Rajasthan, Uttar Pradesh and Uttarakhand. |
| Implementing entity | Kishau Corporation Limited, a joint venture of Himachal Pradesh and Uttarakhand. |
| Dam specifications | The project proposes a 232.6-metre-high concrete gravity dam with 1,562 MCM live storage capacity. |
| Power capacity | The project will have an installed capacity of 660 MW and is expected to generate about 1,476 million units annually. |
| Major benefits | It is expected to support irrigation over nearly one lakh hectares, improve water supply and augment Yamuna flows. |
13. What is the central objective of the Gujarat Child Protection Policy 2026?
A) To regulate private schools
B) To promote child employment schemes
C) To ensure a safe and rights-based childhood
D) To introduce compulsory digital education
E) To create new juvenile courts
Answer: C) To ensure a safe and rights-based childhood.
Event and Location:
- Event: The Gujarat State Child Protection Policy 2026 has been introduced to strengthen safeguards for children against abuse, exploitation, neglect, discrimination and emerging online risks.
- Location: Gujarat, India.
- Date: 16 September 2026.
Mandates and Objectives:
- Mandates: Institutions working directly with children must strengthen protection systems, train employees on child rights and relevant laws, follow prescribed codes of conduct and ensure safeguards across schools, healthcare facilities, care institutions, workplaces, public spaces and digital platforms.
- Objectives: The policy aims to provide every child with a safe, dignified and rights-based childhood, equal access to protection services, education, healthcare and opportunities for holistic development.
Important Terms Explained:
- POCSO Act: The Protection of Children from Sexual Offences Act provides legal safeguards for persons below 18 years against sexual offences and includes mandatory reporting and child-friendly procedures.
- Juvenile Justice Act: The Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection of Children) Act, 2015 provides a statutory framework for children in need of care and protection and children in conflict with law.
- Zero Tolerance: It refers to the policy approach of not accepting any form of child abuse, exploitation, harassment, discrimination or sexual misconduct.
- Child Welfare Committee: It is a statutory body under the juvenile justice framework responsible for matters concerning children in need of care and protection.
- Digital Child Safety: It refers to measures aimed at protecting children from online abuse, exploitation and risks arising from internet, social media and technology use.
Tabular Summary:
| Parameter | Details |
| Policy name | Gujarat State Child Protection Policy 2026. |
| State | Gujarat. |
| Core approach | Safe, dignified and rights-based childhood with zero tolerance towards abuse and exploitation. |
| Key safeguards | Protection from violence, neglect, exploitation, discrimination, harassment and online risks. |
| Institutional requirement | Organisations interacting with children must train staff and follow prescribed codes of conduct. |
| Vulnerable groups | The policy gives special attention to children with disabilities, migrants, orphans, trafficking victims, street children and disadvantaged communities. |
| Digital protection | The framework seeks stronger safeguards against online child sexual abuse and exploitation. |
| Accountability | Non-compliance may result in action against the institution or individual concerned. |
14. Which village became Ladakh’s first Heritage Village in September 2026?
A) Padum
B) Kumik
C) Hanle
D) Turtuk
E) Diskit
Answer: B) Kumik.
Event and Location:
- Event: Kumik was declared Ladakh’s first Heritage Village in recognition of its traditional architecture, Buddhist manuscripts, agricultural practices and living cultural traditions.
- Location: Kumik village, Zanskar, Ladakh.
- Date: 15 September 2026.
Mandates and Objectives:
- Mandates: The heritage recognition highlights the preservation of Kumik’s traditional houses, Buddhist literary heritage, farming practices, religious traditions and community-based cultural knowledge.
- Objectives: The recognition aims to acknowledge and promote the village’s cultural significance while drawing attention to the preservation of its living heritage amid challenges such as water scarcity and migration.
Important Terms Explained:
- Heritage Village: It refers to a settlement recognised for preserving distinctive architecture, traditions, cultural practices, historical resources and community heritage.
- Kanjur Manuscripts: Also known as Kangyur, these are Tibetan Buddhist canonical texts containing teachings traditionally attributed to the Buddha, including works on philosophy, monastic discipline and tantra.
- Living Heritage: It refers to cultural practices, knowledge, skills and traditions that continue to be maintained and transmitted by an active community across generations.
- Water Scarcity: It refers to insufficient availability of water to meet domestic, agricultural and community needs, which has contributed to migration from Kumik.
Tabular Summary:
| Parameter | Details |
| Village | Kumik. |
| Heritage status | Ladakh’s first Heritage Village. |
| Location | Zanskar, Ladakh. |
| Declaration date | 15 September 2026. |
| Declaration event | Ladakh Zanskar Festival. |
| Key heritage features | Traditional architecture, Buddhist literature, agriculture and local customs. |
| Important manuscript | Kanjur or Kangyur manuscripts associated with Tibetan Buddhist canonical literature. |
| Major challenge | Declining water availability has affected agriculture and contributed to migration. |
15. Which state officially recognised September 15 as Engineers’ Day and permitted engineers to use the professional prefix “Er.” from 2026?
A) Tamil Nadu
B) Karnataka
C) Maharashtra
D) Telangana
E) Kerala
Answer: B) Karnataka.
Event and Location:
- Event: Karnataka officially recognised September 15 as Engineers’ Day and permitted engineers to use the professional prefix “Er.” before their names from 2026.
- Location: Karnataka, India.
- Date: 15 September 2026.
Mandates and Objectives:
- Mandates: The Karnataka government authorised the use of the “Er.” prefix by engineers and formally recognised September 15 as the state’s annual Engineers’ Day.
- Objectives: The decision aims to provide professional recognition to engineers and honour the legacy of Bharat Ratna Sir M. Visvesvaraya, whose birth anniversary is observed as Engineers’ Day.
Important Terms Explained:
- Er. Prefix: It is a professional title authorised by the Karnataka government for engineers to use before their names.
- Sir M. Visvesvaraya: He was a renowned civil engineer and administrator who served as Diwan of Mysore from 1912 to 1918 and received the Bharat Ratna in 1955.
- Krishnaraja Sagara Dam: It is a major dam associated with Sir M. Visvesvaraya’s engineering contributions, including the use of automatic sluice gates.
Tabular Summary:
| Parameter | Details |
| Decision | Karnataka officially recognised September 15 as Engineers’ Day. |
| Order date | 15 September 2026. |
| Professional recognition | Engineers in Karnataka were permitted to use the prefix “Er.” before their names. |
| Person honoured | Sir M. Visvesvaraya. |
| Reason for date | September 15 marks the birth anniversary of Sir M. Visvesvaraya. |
| Major honour | Sir M. Visvesvaraya received the Bharat Ratna in 1955. |
| Administrative role | He served as Diwan of Mysore from 1912 to 1918. |
| Engineering contribution | He was associated with irrigation, flood control, industrial planning and automatic sluice gates at the KRS dam. |
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