Daily Current Affairs November 08 & 09

Dear Champions, as you all know that a lot of competitive exams have been notified consequently. Candidates have to prepare themselves according to the level of competition and expectation of the Recruitment board. Regarding that one of the most important topic is Daily Current Affairs November 08 & 09. Current Affairs in the form of contemporary events of national & international play a crucial role in almost every competitive exams like Banking, Insurance, SSC, UPSC, TNPSC, Railway etc.

Current affairs are the most dynamic yet scoring among all sections and need to be prepared from the right source. Here, we cafunsta team, providing Daily GK Updates, Current Affairs Questions, and Monthly current affairs pdf.

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November 08 & 09 | Daily Current Affairs 2025

Important Days – Daily Current Affairs November 08 & 09

1. World Radiography Day is observed annually on which date to mark the discovery of X-rays?
A) October 10
B) December 5
C) November 8
D) July 12
E) August 29
Answer: C) November 8

Event and Location:

• Event: World Radiography Day 2025 observed globally
• Location: International (observed worldwide)
• Date: November 8, 2025

Mandates and Objectives:

• Mandates:
  • World Radiography Day commemorates the discovery of X-rays by Wilhelm Conrad Roentgen on November 8, 1895.
  • Celebrations acknowledge the vital role of radiographers and radiologists in modern healthcare and diagnostics.
• Objectives:
  • To raise awareness about the importance of medical imaging in healthcare.
  • To promote safe imaging practices and recognize the technological advancements in radiology.
  • To honor professionals who ensure accurate diagnosis and compassionate patient care through imaging.

Important Terms Explained:

• X-rays: A form of electromagnetic radiation discovered by Wilhelm Roentgen that can penetrate human tissues and is widely used in diagnostic imaging.
• Radiographer: A healthcare professional trained to operate imaging systems like X-ray, CT, MRI, and more, ensuring both technical precision and patient safety.
• Hybrid Imaging: Combines anatomical and functional imaging modalities like PET/CT or SPECT/CT, improving diagnostic capability in diseases such as cancer.
• Explainable AI (XAI): A type of artificial intelligence in radiology that not only detects patterns but also explains its reasoning, enhancing trust and transparency in diagnostics.
• ALARA Principle: “As Low As Reasonably Achievable”, a safety guideline in radiology to minimize radiation exposure without compromising diagnostic quality.

Tabular Summary:

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2. National Legal Services Day is observed annually to commemorate which landmark legislation?
A) Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993
B) Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987
C) Right to Information Act, 2005
D) Judiciary Reforms Act, 1999
E) Equal Justice and Fair Trial Act, 2002
Answer: B) Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987

Event and Location:

• Event: Observation of National Legal Services Day 2025
• Location: India (nationwide observance)
• Date: November 9, 2025

Mandates and Objectives:

• Mandates:
  • National Legal Services Day marks the enforcement of the Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987 on November 9, 1995.
  • It promotes free legal aid, Lok Adalats, and legal awareness programmes to ensure access to justice for all, especially marginalized communities.
• Objectives:
  • To provide free and competent legal services to citizens facing economic or social barriers.
  • To promote legal awareness, ensure speedy justice, and resolve disputes through alternate mechanisms like Lok Adalats and fast-track courts.

Important Terms Explained:

• Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987:
  • An act that established a three-tier legal aid system in India (national, state, and district levels), ensuring access to free legal services for the underprivileged.
• Lok Adalats:
  • Alternative dispute resolution forums under the Act, where cases are resolved amicably and efficiently. Over 23.58 crore cases were settled from 2022 to 2025.
• Legal Aid Defense Counsel System (LADCS):
  • A NALSA-run scheme offering free legal defense in criminal cases. As of September 2025, 668 districts have functional LADCS offices.
• DISHA Scheme:
  • Designing Innovative Solutions for Holistic Access to Justice, a tech-based legal aid initiative (2021–2026) providing pre-litigation support and pro bono services.
• Fast Track Special Courts (FTSCs):
  • Courts established to deal with serious sexual offenses, including POCSO cases. As of June 2025, 725 FTSCs are operational, including 392 exclusive POCSO courts.
• Gram Nyayalayas:
  • Village-level mobile courts for quick and affordable rural justice, with 488 functional as of March 2025.
• Nari Adalats:
  • Women-led justice forums at the Gram Panchayat level under Mission Shakti, handling domestic and gender-based violence through reconciliation.

Tabular Summary:

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3. Uttarakhand Foundation Day 2025 marks how many years since the formation of the state?
A) 20 years
B) 23 years
C) 25 years
D) 27 years
E) 30 years
Answer: C) 25 years

Event and Location:

• Event: Uttarakhand celebrates 25 years of statehood on Foundation Day
• Location: Uttarakhand, India
• Date: November 9, 2025

Mandates and Objectives:

• Mandates:
  • Celebration of the 25th anniversary of Uttarakhand’s formation, commemorating its separation from Uttar Pradesh in 2000.
  • State-wide programs and cultural events organised under the theme “Uttarakhand@25”.
• Objectives:
  • To honour the historic struggle for separate statehood.
  • To promote state identity, cultural heritage, developmental progress, and the future vision roadmap.

Important Terms Explained:

• Uttarakhand Foundation Day:
  • Observed every November 9, it commemorates the creation of India’s 27th state in the year 2000, separated from Uttar Pradesh.
• Silver Jubilee (25 Years):
  • 2025 marks 25 years of Uttarakhand’s formation, referred to as the Silver Jubilee, celebrated through exhibitions, parades, and cultural programs across the state.
• Uttaranchal (Old Name):
  • The state was originally named Uttaranchal when formed in 2000, and was officially renamed Uttarakhand in 2007 to reflect its cultural and historical significance.

Tabular Summary:

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Sports – Daily Current Affairs November 08 & 09

4. Who won the gold medal in the men’s 50m pistol event at the ISSF World Championships 2025 in Cairo?
A) Vijay Kumar
B) Saurabh Chaudhary
C) Ravinder Singh
D) Abhinav Bindra
E) Anish Bhanwala
Answer: C) Ravinder Singh

Event and Location:

• Event: India wins medals in shooting at ISSF World Championships 2025
• Location: Cairo, Egypt
• Date: November 8, 2025

Mandates and Objectives:

• Mandates: Elavenil Valarivan won the bronze medal in women’s 10m air rifle, and Ravinder Singh won gold in men’s 50m free pistol at the ISSF World Championships.
• Objectives: To compete at the global stage in Olympic shooting disciplines, increase India’s global shooting medal tally, and showcase elite performance in precision sports.

Important Terms Explained:

• ISSF (International Shooting Sport Federation): The global governing body for Olympic-style shooting events, organizing world championships and regulating the sport internationally.
• 10m Air Rifle (Women): An Olympic shooting event where athletes shoot at a target 10 meters away using air rifles; scores are based on precision over 24 shots in finals.
• 50m Free Pistol (Men): A traditional pistol shooting event requiring extreme precision from 50 meters distance, testing stability and focus over a long-format scoring structure.

Tabular Summary:

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5. Novak Djokovic won his 101st ATP title in November 2025 by defeating Lorenzo Musetti in the final of which tournament?
A) Paris Masters
B) Italian Open
C) Hellenic Championship
D) ATP Finals
E) Madrid Open
Answer: C) Hellenic Championship

Event and Location:

• Event: Novak Djokovic wins 101st ATP title at Hellenic Championship
• Location: Athens, Greece
• Date: November 8, 2025

Mandates and Objectives:

• Mandates: Novak Djokovic defeated Lorenzo Musetti in the final of the ATP 250 Hellenic Championship in Athens, clinching his 101st ATP title and becoming the oldest champion on the ATP Tour at age 38.
• Objectives: To continue his record-breaking career, extend his ATP title tally, and maintain competitive momentum ahead of the ATP Finals in Turin.

Important Terms Explained:

• ATP (Association of Tennis Professionals): The governing body of the men’s professional tennis circuit, organizing tournaments such as ATP 250, ATP 500, and ATP Masters 1000.
• ATP 250 Tournament: A category of tennis tournaments on the ATP Tour that awards 250 ranking points to the winner; generally regarded as entry-level among ATP events.
• Hellenic Championship: A professional ATP 250 hardcourt tennis tournament held in Athens, Greece — its 2025 edition became notable for Djokovic’s historic victory.

Tabular Summary:

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6. Which Indian chess player recently became the country’s 91st Grandmaster after winning the ASEAN Individual Championship?
A) Pranav Anand
B) Bharath Subramaniyam
C) Raahul V.S.
D) Leon Mendonca
E) Arjun Erigaisi
Answer: C) Raahul V.S.

Event and Location:

• Event: Raahul V.S. becomes India’s 91st Chess Grandmaster
• Location: New Delhi (event reported); ASEAN Championship location – Southeast Asia
• Date: November 9, 2025

Mandates and Objectives:

• Mandates: Raahul V.S., a 21-year-old Indian chess player, was conferred the Grandmaster (GM) title after winning the 6th ASEAN Individual Chess Championship, securing the title with a round to spare.
• Objectives: To achieve Grandmaster status by fulfilling the required GM norms and crossing the 2500 Elo rating threshold, thereby marking a significant milestone in India’s chess excellence journey.

Important Terms Explained:

• Grandmaster (GM): The highest title awarded in chess by FIDE (International Chess Federation); requires earning three GM norms and surpassing the 2500 Elo rating.
• ASEAN Individual Championship: A regional chess tournament involving players from Southeast Asia; recognized by FIDE for norm achievements and rating progress.
• Raahul V.S.: Indian chess player who became an International Master (IM) in 2021 and has now achieved GM status after his win at the ASEAN Championship in 2025.

Tabular Summary:

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7. Who won the 2025 WTA Finals by defeating World No. 1 Aryna Sabalenka in the final?
A) Iga Swiatek
B) Coco Gauff
C) Elena Rybakina
D) Ons Jabeur
E) Jessica Pegula
Answer: C) Elena Rybakina

Event and Location:

• Event: Elena Rybakina wins WTA Finals 2025
• Location: Riyadh, Saudi Arabia
• Date: November 8, 2025

Mandates and Objectives:

• Mandates: Elena Rybakina, ranked World No. 6, defeated Aryna Sabalenka, the World No. 1, in straight sets 6-3, 7-6(0) to win the WTA Finals 2025 title.
• Objectives: To crown the year-end champion among the top 8 women’s singles players on the WTA Tour, and strengthen player rankings and legacy in the women’s tennis circuit.

Important Terms Explained:

• WTA Finals: The season-ending championship for the top 8 ranked women’s singles and doubles players in the Women’s Tennis Association (WTA) Tour, considered the most prestigious tournament after the Grand Slams.
• Elena Rybakina: A professional tennis player from Kazakhstan, ranked World No. 6 at the time of the win, known for her powerful serve and baseline game.
• Aryna Sabalenka: A tennis player from Belarus, ranked World No. 1, known for her aggressive playing style and strong performance in 2023–25 seasons.

Tabular Summary:

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Banking and Finance – Daily Current Affairs November 08 & 09

8. Where was the 20th triennial national conference of the Canara Bank Officers Association held in November 2025?
A) Bengaluru
B) Mumbai
C) Visakhapatnam
D) Hyderabad
E) New Delhi
Answer: C) Visakhapatnam

Event and Location:

• Event: 20th Triennial National Conference of Canara Bank Officers Association
• Location: Visakhapatnam, Andhra Pradesh
• Date: November 8, 2025

Mandates and Objectives:

• Mandates: The Canara Bank Officers Association held its 20th triennial national conference, attended by thousands of officers and senior executives of the bank.
• Objectives: To align officer initiatives with the $5-trillion economy goal of India, promote officer welfare, discuss organizational growth, and recognize leadership contributions within Canara Bank.

Important Terms Explained:

• Canara Bank Officers Association: A national body representing officers of Canara Bank, with a membership of over 50,000, focusing on employee welfare and organizational progress.
• $5-trillion Economy Target: A goal set by the Government of India to make the Indian economy reach the $5 trillion mark, emphasizing the role of institutions like public sector banks in achieving this.
• K. Satyanarayana Raju: Managing Director & CEO of Canara Bank, who attended the event as chief guest; a biography about him was released during the event by his mother, Rama Seetha.

Tabular Summary:

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Business and Economy – Daily Current Affairs November 08 & 09

9. Premier Energies is investing ₹5,942 crore in which state to establish a solar manufacturing hub featuring TOPCon solar cells and silicon ingot units?
A) Telangana
B) Gujarat
C) Maharashtra
D) Andhra Pradesh
E) Rajasthan
Answer: D) Andhra Pradesh

Event and Location:

• Event: Premier Energies to set up solar manufacturing hub
• Location: Naidupeta Industrial Park, Nellore district, Andhra Pradesh
• Date: November 8, 2025

Mandates and Objectives:

• Mandates: Premier Energies will establish a 4 GW TOPCon solar cell unit and 5 GW silicon ingot and wafer plant as part of a ₹5,942 crore investment in Andhra Pradesh.
• Objectives: The goal is to boost domestic solar manufacturing capacity, reduce dependency on imports, support clean energy growth, and create around 3,500 direct jobs with additional indirect employment.

Important Terms Explained:

• TOPCon Solar Cells: Tunnel Oxide Passivated Contact (TOPCon) technology is an advanced solar cell type offering higher efficiency and lower degradation rates than traditional cells.
• Silicon Ingot and Wafer: A silicon ingot is a block of ultra-pure silicon sliced into thin wafers, which are the base material used in manufacturing solar photovoltaic cells.
• Premier Energies: One of India’s largest integrated solar energy equipment manufacturers, known for producing solar cells, modules, and related infrastructure.

Tabular Summary:

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10. Which institution has sanctioned ₹7,500 crore to APCRDA for infrastructure development in Amaravati LPS villages?
A) NABARD
B) SIDBI
C) NaBFID
D) NITI Aayog
E) NHB
Answer: C) NaBFID

Event and Location:

• Event: NaBFID sanctions ₹7,500 crore loan to APCRDA for Amaravati LPS village development
• Location: Amaravati, Andhra Pradesh
• Date: November 8, 2025

Mandates and Objectives:

• Mandates: The National Bank for Financing Infrastructure and Development (NaBFID) has sanctioned a loan of ₹7,500 crore to the Andhra Pradesh Capital Region Development Authority (APCRDA) for infrastructure development.
• Objectives: To develop basic infrastructure in 29 villages under the Land Pooling Scheme (LPS), including roads, water supply, drainage, and other civic amenities; implementation begins from November 21, 2025.

Important Terms Explained:

• NaBFID (National Bank for Financing Infrastructure and Development): A government-owned development financial institution established to fund long-term infrastructure projects in India, especially in sectors like urban development, energy, and logistics.
• APCRDA (Andhra Pradesh Capital Region Development Authority): The authority responsible for the planning and development of Amaravati and surrounding regions within Andhra Pradesh’s capital area.
• Land Pooling Scheme (LPS): A mechanism where landowners voluntarily contribute their land for infrastructure development, and in return, receive a portion of developed land. It enables urban planning without forced land acquisition.

Tabular Summary:

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11. The ‘Hyundai Hope for Cancer’ initiative, in collaboration with IIT-Madras, has reached over how many individuals through awareness and screening camps?
A) 5,000
B) 8,500
C) 10,000
D) 11,000
E) 15,000
Answer: D) 11,000

Event and Location:

• Event: ‘Hyundai Hope for Cancer’ initiative reaches over 11,000 people
• Location: Tamil Nadu (state-wide), coordinated from Chennai
• Date: November 9, 2025

Mandates and Objectives:

• Mandates: The Hyundai Motor India Foundation (HMIF), in collaboration with IIT-Madras, has organized 109 cancer awareness and screening camps across Tamil Nadu under the ‘Hyundai Hope for Cancer’ initiative.
• Objectives: To raise awareness about cancer, promote early detection, and provide free screening to underserved communities, especially in rural and semi-urban areas of Tamil Nadu.

Important Terms Explained:

• Hyundai Hope for Cancer: A CSR initiative by Hyundai Motor India Foundation, aiming to fight cancer through awareness, education, and free screenings, in partnership with institutions like IIT-Madras.
• HMIF (Hyundai Motor India Foundation): The Corporate Social Responsibility (CSR) arm of Hyundai Motor India Ltd., focusing on health, education, environment, and community development.
• IIT-Madras (Indian Institute of Technology Madras): A premier engineering institution based in Chennai, Tamil Nadu, collaborating with HMIF to provide technical and operational support for cancer screening camps.

Tabular Summary:

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12. Karnataka Bank reported a net profit of ₹319.12 crore in which quarter of FY 2025-26?
A) Q1 (April–June)
B) Q2 (July–September)
C) Q3 (October–December)
D) Q4 (January–March)
E) Full Year FY 2025-26
Answer: B) Q2 (July–September)

Event and Location:

• Event: Karnataka Bank posts ₹319.12 crore net profit in Q2 FY 2025–26
• Location: Mangaluru, Karnataka
• Date: November 9, 2025

Mandates and Objectives:

• Mandates: The Board of Directors of Karnataka Bank approved the Q2 and half-yearly financial results for FY 2025–26, reporting a net profit of ₹319.12 crore for Q2 (July–September).
• Objectives: To disclose the bank’s financial performance, assure stakeholders of consistent profitability, and showcase quarterly growth in net earnings over Q1.

Important Terms Explained:

• Net Profit: The amount of earnings left after all expenses, taxes, and provisions; reflects the bank’s profitability for the quarter.
• Q2 FY 2025–26: The second quarter of the financial year, covering the period from July 1 to September 30, 2025.
• Board Approval of Financial Results: A mandatory governance step where the bank’s board validates and discloses financial performance to investors and regulatory bodies.

Tabular Summary:

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13. What is the name of the new health insurance plan launched by SBI General Insurance in November 2025?
A) SBI Secure Plus
B) Health Alpha
C) MediCare Pro
D) Arogya Shield
E) Swasthya Suraksha
Answer: B) Health Alpha

Event and Location:

• Event: SBI General Insurance launches Health Alpha medical insurance plan
• Location: Pan India (launched by SBI General Insurance)
• Date: November 8, 2025

Mandates and Objectives:

• Mandates:
  • SBI General Insurance has launched a customisable health insurance plan called Health Alpha.
  • It includes comprehensive coverage, enhanced sum assured, and modern ailment inclusions, along with add-on features tailored to customer needs.
• Objectives:
  • To provide a flexible and all-inclusive medical cover aligned with current healthcare trends.
  • To address the increasing healthcare costs by offering higher sum assured options.
  • To support policyholders in building a robust financial plan that includes adequate health protection.

Important Terms Explained:

• Health Insurance:
  • A financial product that covers medical expenses for illnesses, injuries, surgeries, and hospital stays, helping policyholders avoid high out-of-pocket healthcare costs.
• Customisable Add-ons:
  • Optional coverage benefits that can be added to the base insurance policy to address specific needs like maternity, critical illness, OPD cover, or wellness benefits.
• Sum Assured:
  • The maximum amount that an insurer agrees to pay in case of a medical claim under a health insurance policy. Higher sums are being offered to cover rising medical inflation.

Tabular Summary:

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Appointments – Daily Current Affairs November 08 & 09

14. Who was sworn in as Bolivia’s new president in November 2025, ending nearly 20 years of socialist rule?
A) Evo Morales
B) Luis Arce
C) Carlos Mesa
D) Rodrigo Paz
E) Jeanine Áñez
Answer: D) Rodrigo Paz

Event and Location:

• Event: Rodrigo Paz sworn in as Bolivia’s new president
• Location: La Paz, Bolivia
• Date: November 8, 2025

Mandates and Objectives:

• Mandates: Rodrigo Paz, a pro-business conservative and son of a former Bolivian president, was sworn in as the new President of Bolivia, succeeding Luis Arce.
• Objectives: To stabilize Bolivia’s economy after years of state-heavy socialist rule, address hard currency shortages, reform subsidy spending, and restore business and investor confidence.

Important Terms Explained:

• Rodrigo Paz: Newly elected President of Bolivia as of November 8, 2025. Known for his center-right, pro-business stance, he marks a political shift from the socialist leadership of the past two decades.
• Luis Arce: Outgoing Bolivian President and successor to Evo Morales, known for his socialist economic policies. His administration reportedly depleted most of Bolivia’s foreign currency reserves.
• Hard Currency Reserves: A country’s holdings of internationally accepted, stable currencies (like USD, EUR), essential for foreign trade and economic stability. Bolivia’s reserves were largely spent on fuel subsidies.

Tabular Summary:

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Awards – Daily Current Affairs November 08 & 09

15. Which Indian-origin ensemble’s album Mind Explosion: 50th Anniversary Tour received a Grammy nomination in 2026, marking Ustad Zakir Hussain’s final outing?
A) Indian Ocean
B) Silk Road Ensemble
C) Shakti
D) Laya Project
E) Samarpan
Answer: C) Shakti

Event and Location:

• Event: Shakti’s album earns two Grammy nominations as Ustad Zakir Hussain announces retirement
• Location: Global (Grammy Awards, USA)
• Date: November 9, 2025

Mandates and Objectives:

• Mandates: The Indo-jazz fusion band Shakti, co-founded by Ustad Zakir Hussain and John McLaughlin, received two Grammy nominations for their 2024 live album “Mind Explosion: Shakti’s 50th Anniversary Tour”, including one for Best Global Music Album.
• Objectives: To honor a 50-year musical journey that bridged Indian classical and Western jazz traditions; to mark Ustad Zakir Hussain’s farewell to the international performance stage with global recognition.

Important Terms Explained:

• Shakti (Band): An Indo-jazz fusion group formed in the 1970s by tabla maestro Zakir Hussain and guitarist John McLaughlin, blending Indian classical music with jazz improvisation.
• Grammy Awards: Prestigious international music awards presented by the Recording Academy (USA), recognizing excellence in various music genres including Global, Classical, Jazz, and Pop.
• Best Global Music Album: A Grammy category awarded for outstanding albums reflecting world music traditions and cross-cultural musical innovation.
• Ustad Zakir Hussain: A world-renowned Indian tabla virtuoso and percussionist known for his collaborations across global genres and recipient of multiple awards including Padma Bhushan.

Tabular Summary:

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16. Which Indian institution won the gold medal and Best Project Award in the Food and Nutrition category at iGEM 2025 in Paris?
A) IIT Madras
B) VIT Vellore
C) Anna University
D) Rajalakshmi Engineering College
E) BITS Pilani
Answer: D) Rajalakshmi Engineering College

Event and Location:

• Event: Rajalakshmi Engineering College wins gold at iGEM 2025
• Location: Paris, France (REC, Chennai, Tamil Nadu)
• Date: November 9, 2025

Mandates and Objectives:

• Mandates: A student team from the Biotechnology Department of Rajalakshmi Engineering College (REC) participated in iGEM 2025, showcasing a project in synthetic biology and winning a gold medal and Best Project Award in the Food and Nutrition category.
• Objectives: To solve real-world problems using synthetic biology, promote interdisciplinary scientific innovation, and represent India on an international platform through collaborative student-led research.

Important Terms Explained:

• iGEM (International Genetically Engineered Machine): A global synthetic biology competition where student teams from across the world present research-based solutions using genetically engineered systems.
• Synthetic Biology: An interdisciplinary area combining biology and engineering to design and construct new biological parts or systems for useful purposes like food, energy, and healthcare.
• Food and Nutrition Category: A theme under iGEM focusing on using synthetic biology to improve food quality, nutrition, sustainability, and food security globally.

Tabular Summary:

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Science and Technology – Daily Current Affairs November 08 & 09

17. What is the name of the heaviest communication satellite launched by ISRO into Geosynchronous Transfer Orbit on November 2, 2025?
A) GSAT-11
B) CMS-01
C) CMS-03
D) INSAT-4CR
E) GSAT-6A
Answer: C) CMS-03

Event and Location:

• Event: ISRO launches CMS-03, its heaviest communication satellite
• Location: Satish Dhawan Space Centre, Sriharikota, Andhra Pradesh
• Date: November 2, 2025

Mandates and Objectives:

• Mandates: The Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) successfully launched CMS-03, the heaviest communication satellite ever carried by an Indian launch vehicle (LVM3-M5), into Geosynchronous Transfer Orbit (GTO).
• Objectives: To enhance communication infrastructure, provide improved services in broadcasting, telecommunication, and disaster management, and showcase India’s heavy payload launch capabilities.

Important Terms Explained:

• CMS-03: A next-generation communication satellite developed by ISRO, intended to improve broadband and telecommunication coverage across India, especially in remote areas.
• LVM3-M5: Launch Vehicle Mark-3 (fifth mission) — ISRO’s heaviest and most powerful operational rocket, used to place heavier satellites into higher orbits such as GTO.
• GTO (Geosynchronous Transfer Orbit): An intermediate orbit used to transfer satellites into geostationary orbits; it allows communication satellites to appear stationary relative to the Earth.

Tabular Summary:

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18. Which of the following instruments aboard Chandrayaan-2 collected radar data used by ISRO to study the Moon’s polar regions?
A) MIP
B) DFSAR
C) LEND
D) LRO
E) SPDC
Answer: B) DFSAR

Event and Location:

• Event: ISRO develops advanced lunar data products from Chandrayaan-2 radar observations
• Location: Space Applications Centre (SAC), Ahmedabad & ISRO HQ, Bengaluru
• Date: November 8, 2025

Mandates and Objectives:

• Mandates:
  • ISRO scientists have processed and released 1400+ radar datasets captured by DFSAR (Dual Frequency Synthetic Aperture Radar) aboard Chandrayaan-2’s orbiter.
  • These datasets provide critical information on water-ice presence, surface roughness, density, and porosity of the Moon’s south polar region.
• Objectives:
  • To create ready-to-use data products for studying the Moon’s polar regions,
  • To aid in understanding mineral distribution,
  • To explore early chemical conditions of the solar system, and
  • To support future planetary exploration missions with scientific insight into lunar terrain.

Important Terms Explained:

• DFSAR (Dual Frequency Synthetic Aperture Radar):
  • An advanced radar system onboard Chandrayaan-2’s orbiter, designed to map lunar surface features in both L- and S-bands, especially useful for polar region exploration and detecting water-ice.
• Chandrayaan-2 Mission (2019):
  • India’s second lunar mission launched by ISRO with an orbiter, lander (Vikram), and rover (Pragyan). While the lander failed during descent, the orbiter continues to function and transmit valuable scientific data.
• Space Applications Centre (SAC):
  • An ISRO research institution located in Ahmedabad, responsible for developing satellite-based applications and data processing algorithms, including the one used for Chandrayaan-2 radar data.

Tabular Summary:

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Schemes – Daily Current Affairs November 08 & 09

19. Under which program were 5,000 saplings planted in Ongole in one hour by students from 10 colleges?
A) Haritha Haram
B) Green India Mission
C) Swarnandhra – Swachh Andhra
D) Jal Shakti Abhiyan
E) Mission Green Bharat
Answer: C) Swarnandhra – Swachh Andhra

Event and Location:

• Event: 5,000 saplings planted in one hour under a green initiative
• Location: Ongole, Andhra Pradesh
• Date: November 8, 2025

Mandates and Objectives:

• Mandates: 5,000 saplings were planted and 2,000 fruit saplings distributed by students from 10 colleges within one hour under the Swarnandhra – Swachh Andhra (SASA) programme.
• Objectives: To increase urban greenery, improve nutritional access through fruit saplings, and promote environmental awareness among youth through active participation.

Important Terms Explained:

• Swarnandhra – Swachh Andhra (SASA): A state-level environmental initiative in Andhra Pradesh focusing on promoting cleanliness, sustainable greenery, and eco-awareness across urban and rural areas.
• One Student – One Plant: A campaign slogan encouraging individual responsibility among students for planting and nurturing one sapling, aiming for long-term environmental stewardship.
• Ongole Municipal Corporation (OMC): The civic administrative body for Ongole city, responsible for executing urban development and environmental projects in collaboration with government programs.

Tabular Summary:

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20. An awareness programme on PMVBRY was recently held in which Tamil Nadu district by EPF officials?
A) Madurai
B) Coimbatore
C) Theni
D) Tiruppur
E) Salem
Answer: C) Theni

Event and Location:

• Event: Awareness programme conducted on Prime Minister’s Viksit Bharat Rozgar Yojana (PMVBRY)
• Location: Theni district, Tamil Nadu
• Date: November 7, 2025

Mandates and Objectives:

• Mandates: The Employees Provident Fund (EPF) officials conducted an awareness programme on PMVBRY for textile sector stakeholders at Anna Cooperative Spinning Mills, Theni.
• Objectives: To educate employers and employees about the benefits and provisions under the Prime Minister’s Viksit Bharat Rozgar Yojana, promoting formal employment generation and EPFO registration.

Important Terms Explained:

• PMVBRY (Prime Minister’s Viksit Bharat Rozgar Yojana): A central government initiative aimed at incentivizing job creation by offering EPF subsidies to employers for newly employed workers, especially in the formal sector.
• EPF (Employees’ Provident Fund): A retirement benefits scheme managed by the Employees’ Provident Fund Organisation (EPFO), where both employer and employee contribute to the employee’s retirement savings.
• Anna Cooperative Spinning Mills: A cooperative textile unit in Theni district that served as the venue for the PMVBRY awareness programme, involving regional textile industry stakeholders.

Tabular Summary:

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National Affairs – Daily Current Affairs November 08 & 09

21. Which of the following routes is not among the new Vande Bharat trains flagged off by PM Modi on November 8, 2025?
A) Banaras–Khajuraho
B) Lucknow–Saharanpur
C) Firozpur–Delhi
D) Ernakulam–Chennai
E) Ernakulam–Bengaluru
Answer: D) Ernakulam–Chennai

Event and Location:

• Event: PM Modi flags off 4 new Vande Bharat Express trains
• Location: Banaras Railway Station, Varanasi, Uttar Pradesh
• Date: November 8, 2025

Mandates and Objectives:

• Mandates: Prime Minister Narendra Modi inaugurated four new Vande Bharat Express trains from Banaras Railway Station, aimed at enhancing connectivity across diverse regions of India.
• Objectives: To reduce travel time, improve regional connectivity, boost tourism between cultural and religious destinations, and promote economic activity through enhanced rail infrastructure.

Important Terms Explained:

• Vande Bharat Express: India’s flagship semi-high-speed train series developed under the Make in India initiative, offering modern, faster, and more comfortable intercity rail services.
• Banaras-Khajuraho Route: Connects major religious and heritage sites such as Varanasi, Prayagraj, and Chitrakoot, fostering spiritual tourism and accessibility.
• Semi-High-Speed Rail: Refers to trains that operate at speeds between 130–160 km/h, like Vande Bharat, improving transit times across key routes.

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22. Which Indian state recently sanctioned ₹60,799 crore for major road development projects including the Hyderabad-Vijayawada highway expansion?
A) Andhra Pradesh
B) Tamil Nadu
C) Maharashtra
D) Telangana
E) Karnataka
Answer: D) Telangana

Event and Location:

• Event: Telangana sanctions ₹60,799 crore for state-wide road development
• Location: Telangana
• Date: November 8, 2025

Mandates and Objectives:

• Mandates: Telangana Government has approved a ₹60,799 crore fund allocation for the construction and expansion of road infrastructure, including the ₹10,400 crore Hyderabad-Vijayawada highway upgrade.
• Objectives: The aim is to improve regional connectivity, attract multinational investments, boost economic activity, and create large-scale employment opportunities for rural youth.

Important Terms Explained:

• Hyderabad-Vijayawada Highway Expansion: A major infrastructure project aimed at enhancing connectivity between Telangana’s capital Hyderabad and coastal Andhra Pradesh by converting the existing highway into high-capacity lanes.
• Telangana Road Development Plan: A comprehensive state-level initiative focused on upgrading road infrastructure to enhance industrial development and rural accessibility.
• Multinational Investment Attraction: This refers to the strategic use of infrastructure improvements to encourage foreign direct investment (FDI) and expansion of global enterprises into regional markets.

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23. Under which funding mechanism were projects worth ₹1,441 crore recently approved for Kerala’s rural infrastructure development?
A) PM Gati Shakti
B) MNREGA
C) RIDF Tranche 31
D) PM KUSUM Yojana
E) Bharat Nirman
Answer: C) RIDF Tranche 31

Event and Location:

• Event: Approval of ₹1,441 crore rural infrastructure projects under NABARD’s RIDF
• Location: Kerala
• Date: November 8, 2025

Mandates and Objectives:

• Mandates: Kerala’s high-powered committee approved infrastructure development projects worth ₹1,441.24 crore under Tranche 31 of NABARD’s Rural Infrastructure Development Fund (RIDF), against a normative allocation of ₹550 crore.
• Objectives: To strengthen rural infrastructure including forestry facilities and renewable energy solutions, improve departmental operational efficiency, and support sustainable agriculture through solar pump installations.

Important Terms Explained:

• RIDF (Rural Infrastructure Development Fund): A fund established by NABARD in 1995 to finance infrastructure projects in rural areas, particularly in agriculture and allied sectors.
• Tranche 31: Refers to the 31st annual allocation under the RIDF scheme, indicating continued investment support by NABARD for rural development.
• Solar Pumps: Devices that use solar energy to operate water pumps, often used for irrigation purposes. Under this scheme, 5,689 solar pumps will be installed for farmers selected by the Agriculture Department.
• NABARD (National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development): India’s apex development financial institution focused on credit and infrastructure for agriculture and rural development.

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24. Which organization is working to establish the East Coast Habitat Centre in Visakhapatnam, inspired by the India Habitat Centre model?
A) APCRDA
B) VMRDA
C) GVMC
D) AMRDA
E) HUDA
Answer: B) VMRDA

Event and Location:

• Event: VMRDA advances plans to establish East Coast Habitat Centre–Visakhapatnam (ECHC-V)
• Location: Madhurawada, Visakhapatnam, Andhra Pradesh
• Date: November 8, 2025

Mandates and Objectives:

• Mandates: The Visakhapatnam Metropolitan Region Development Authority (VMRDA) team visited the India Habitat Centre (IHC) in New Delhi to study its infrastructure and operational model to replicate it for the ECHC-V project in Visakhapatnam.
• Objectives: To develop a world-class cultural, business, and environmental centre on the east coast similar to IHC, facilitating knowledge exchange, events, and multi-functional community use.

Important Terms Explained:

• VMRDA (Visakhapatnam Metropolitan Region Development Authority): A regional urban planning authority responsible for infrastructure, real estate, and development projects in the Visakhapatnam metropolitan region.
• ECHC-V (East Coast Habitat Centre – Visakhapatnam): A proposed multifunctional centre being planned by VMRDA, modeled on the India Habitat Centre, to be developed on 8.82 acres in Madhurawada.
• India Habitat Centre (IHC): Located in New Delhi, it is a premier hub for cultural, environmental, and intellectual activities, serving as the model for the upcoming ECHC-V project.

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25. Which institution has developed six massive open online courses (MOOCs) in Malayalam for the first time?
A) MG University
B) Kerala State Open University
C) Calicut EMMRC
D) IIM Kozhikode
E) Kerala Digital Academy
Answer: C) Calicut EMMRC

Event and Location:

• Event: Calicut EMMRC develops six MOOCs in Malayalam for the first time
• Location: Kozhikode, Kerala
• Date: November 8, 2025

Mandates and Objectives:

• Mandates: The Educational Multimedia Research Centre (EMMRC) at University of Calicut has developed six Massive Open Online Courses (MOOCs) in Malayalam across diverse academic subjects.
• Objectives: To promote regional language accessibility in higher education, disseminate advanced knowledge in native languages, and enhance digital learning opportunities for Malayalam-speaking learners.

Important Terms Explained:

• EMMRC (Educational Multimedia Research Centre): A media production and research centre funded by the University Grants Commission (UGC) that develops educational audio-visual content and MOOCs for various universities.
• MOOCs (Massive Open Online Courses): Online courses aimed at unlimited participation and open access via the web, often developed by universities and available on platforms like SWAYAM.
• Malayalam MOOCs: For the first time, six MOOCs have been developed in Malayalam, covering subjects such as Geo-informatics, Green Chemistry, Medieval Kerala, Tourism, and Sustainable Development.

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26. Which hospital recently hosted the Advanced Orthopaedics Symposium 2025 focused on next-generation knee care?
A) AIIMS Delhi
B) Max Healthcare
C) Fortis Hospitals
D) Apollo Hospitals
E) Manipal Hospitals
Answer: D) Apollo Hospitals

Event and Location:

• Event: Apollo Hospitals hosts Advanced Orthopaedics Symposium 2025
• Location: Hyderabad, Telangana
• Date: November 8, 2025

Mandates and Objectives:

• Mandates: Apollo Hospitals organized a two-day Advanced Orthopaedics Symposium 2025, attended by over 250 orthopaedic surgeons, faculty, and students from India and abroad.
• Objectives: To discuss advancements in knee surgery, explore joint preservation techniques, promote precision medicine, and foster innovation through knowledge exchange among medical professionals.

Important Terms Explained:

• Advanced Orthopaedics Symposium: A high-level medical conference focusing on cutting-edge developments in orthopaedics, especially knee and joint care.
• Joint Preservation: A set of surgical and non-surgical techniques aimed at preserving the natural joint and avoiding or delaying total joint replacement.
• Precision Medicine in Orthopaedics: An emerging approach where treatments and surgical decisions are tailored to individual patients using data, imaging, and technology to enhance outcomes.

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27. Which bridge is set to be developed as a visual landmark with ₹99.98 lakh sanctioned by the Kerala Tourism Department?
A) Vyttila Flyover
B) Amboori Kumbichal Kadavu Bridge
C) Periyar Valley Bridge
D) Kuttanad Aqueduct
E) Sreekariyam River Bridge
Answer: B) Amboori Kumbichal Kadavu Bridge

Event and Location:

• Event: ₹99.98 lakh sanctioned to develop Amboori Kumbichal Bridge as a visual landmark
• Location: Amboori, Thiruvananthapuram, Kerala
• Date: November 8, 2025

Mandates and Objectives:

• Mandates: The Kerala Tourism Department, in collaboration with the Public Works Department (PWD), has sanctioned ₹99.98 lakh for transforming the Amboori Kumbichal Kadavu Bridge into a visually appealing tourism spot.
• Objectives: To align with the State Design Policy, enhance the visual aesthetics of the region, and promote tourism by developing the bridge as a landmark structure.

Important Terms Explained:

• State Design Policy: A framework by the Kerala government focused on incorporating aesthetic, cultural, and environmentally sustainable design in public infrastructure projects.
• Amboori Kumbichal Kadavu Bridge: A local bridge in the Amboori region, now set to be beautified and developed as a regional tourism landmark.
• PWD (Public Works Department): Government department responsible for the design, construction, and maintenance of public infrastructure in the state.

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28. Which Indian state recently launched a special medical camp offering specialised health services for accredited journalists?
A) Kerala
B) Tamil Nadu
C) Karnataka
D) Maharashtra
E) Andhra Pradesh
Answer: B) Tamil Nadu

Event and Location:

• Event: Tamil Nadu government launches specialised medical camp for journalists
• Location: Kalaivanar Arangam, Chennai, Tamil Nadu
• Date: November 8, 2025

Mandates and Objectives:

• Mandates: The Tamil Nadu State Government inaugurated a specialised medical camp for accredited journalists, offering a range of diagnostic and treatment services with support from Apollo Hospitals.
• Objectives: To provide comprehensive health screening and specialist medical care to journalists; to uphold welfare commitments including health insurance, pension, and financial assistance for media professionals.

Important Terms Explained:

• Accredited Journalists: Media professionals officially recognized by the government for their role in public communication and eligible for state welfare schemes.
• Comprehensive Health Insurance Scheme (for Journalists): Announced in 2022 by the Tamil Nadu government to cover medical expenses of accredited journalists and their families.
• Specialised Medical Camp: Health initiative providing services such as cardiology, ENT, orthopedics, ophthalmology, gynecology, and Indian Medicine, along with tests like ECG, Echocardiography, and Ultrasound.

Tabular Summary:

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29. Which Indian state has become the first to launch a genome sequencing project specifically focused on tribal populations?
A) Maharashtra
B) Jharkhand
C) Madhya Pradesh
D) Gujarat
E) Odisha
Answer: D) Gujarat

Event and Location:

• Event: Gujarat becomes India’s 1st state to launch tribal-focused genome sequencing project
• Location: Ahmedabad, Gujarat
• Date: November 8, 2025

Mandates and Objectives:

• Mandates: The Gujarat Biotechnology Research Centre (GBRC) has initiated a genome sequencing project to map genetic data from 31 tribal communities across 11 districts, under the broader Genome India Initiative.
• Objectives:
  • To identify and understand the genetic basis of inherited disorders such as thalassemia, sickle cell anaemia, and G6PD deficiency.
  • To create a reference genome database for Gujarat’s tribal population.
  • To enable early diagnosis, targeted treatment, and genetic counseling using low-cost DNA-based diagnostic panels.
  • To promote Precision Medicine and improve health outcomes by addressing malnutrition, immunity issues, and hereditary conditions.

Important Terms Explained:

• Genome Sequencing: A process of determining the complete DNA sequence of an organism’s genome, useful for identifying genetic disorders, mutations, and disease susceptibility.
• Endogamous Marriages: Marriages within a specific community or group, often leading to limited genetic diversity and higher chances of inherited genetic disorders.
• Sickle Cell Anaemia: A genetic blood disorder where red blood cells assume a sickle shape, leading to anemia, pain, and organ damage. Caused by mutations in the beta-globin gene.
• Genome India Project: A national initiative by the Department of Biotechnology, Government of India, to map the genetic diversity of Indian populations for better disease management and healthcare innovation.
• G6PD Deficiency: A genetic disorder causing red blood cells to break down in response to certain medications, infections, or stress; common in certain tribal populations.

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