Daily Current Affairs July 30

Dear Champions, as you all know that a lot of competitive exams have been notified consequently. Candidates have to prepare themselves according to the level of competition and expectation of the Recruitment board. Regarding that one of the most important topic is Daily Current Affairs July 30. Current Affairs in the form of contemporary events of national & international play a crucial role in almost every competitive exams like Banking, Insurance, SSC, UPSC, TNPSC, Railway etc.

Current affairs are the most dynamic yet scoring among all sections and need to be prepared from the right source. Here, we cafunsta team, providing  Daily GK Updates, Current Affairs Questions, and Monthly  current affairs pdf.

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July 30 | Daily Current Affairs 2024

Important Days – Daily Current Affairs July 30

1. What is the theme for World Nature Conservation Day 2024, and on what date is it observed?
A) “Protect Our Forests”; July 29
B) “Connecting People and Plants, Exploring Digital Innovation in Wildlife Conservation”; July 28
C) “Climate Action Now”; July 27
D) “Save the Oceans”; July 26
E) “Green Future”; July 30
Answer: B) “Connecting People and Plants, Exploring Digital Innovation in Wildlife Conservation”; July 28

Event and Location:

• Event: World Nature Conservation Day
• Location: Globally observed

Mandates and Objectives:

• Date: July 28, 2024
• Theme: “Connecting People and Plants, Exploring Digital Innovation in Wildlife Conservation”
• Primary Aim: Emphasize the importance of conserving natural resources and protecting the environment for future generations.

Significance:

• Conservation Definition: Using resources wisely and adopting sustainable, eco-friendly practices.
• Resources Included: Air, water, minerals, soil.
• Current Issues: Climate change, global warming, pollution, endangerment, and extinction of species.
• Objective: Balance human needs with environmental preservation to ensure the availability of natural resources for future generations.
• Events and Activities: Programs, seminars, and events are organized globally to raise awareness and promote sustainable practices.

History:

• Origin: Exact history and origin are unclear.
• Awareness: Growing awareness of climate change and natural disasters has emphasized the need for conservation efforts.

Celebration:

• Activities: Various events, seminars, and activities focus on promoting conservation efforts and addressing climate change.
• Participation: Encourages individuals and communities to adopt sustainable practices and take action to protect the environment.

Important Terms Explained:

• Conservation: The sustainable use and management of natural resources to prevent depletion and ensure long-term environmental health.
• Climate Change: Long-term changes in temperature, precipitation, and other atmospheric conditions, largely due to human activities such as burning fossil fuels and deforestation.

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2. When is the International Day of Friendship observed, and what is its primary aim as proclaimed by the United Nations?
A) June 20; to promote tourism
B) July 30; to inspire peace efforts and build bridges between communities
C) August 15; to celebrate cultural diversity
D) September 5; to recognize human rights
E) December 10; to advocate for social harmony
Answer: B) July 30; to inspire peace efforts and build bridges between communities

Event and Location:

• Event: International Day of Friendship
• Location: Globally observed

Mandates and Objectives:

• Date: July 30
• Proclaimed by: United Nations General Assembly in 2011
• Primary Aim: Promote the idea that “friendship between peoples, countries, cultures, and individuals can inspire peace efforts and build bridges between communities.”
• Involvement: Emphasis on engaging young people in community activities that include different cultures and promote international understanding and respect for diversity.
• Encouragement: Governments, international organisations, and civil society organisations are urged to hold events and activities supporting global efforts to advance mutual understanding, reconciliation, solidarity, and dialogue among civilizations.

Significance:

• Challenges Addressed: Issues like poverty, human rights abuses, and factors undermining security, development, social harmony, and peace.
• Aim: Establish strong ties of trust to eradicate threats to a peaceful future.
• Proposal Basis: Based on UNESCO’s recommendation to define a culture of peace with values, behaviours, and attitudes rejecting violence and preventing conflicts by addressing their root causes.

Important Terms Explained:

• United Nations General Assembly: The main deliberative, policymaking, and representative organ of the United Nations.
• UNESCO: United Nations Educational, Scientific and Cultural Organization, which proposes initiatives to foster peace and security through international cooperation in education, sciences, and culture.

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3. What is the theme for the World Day Against Trafficking in Persons 2024, and what proportion of trafficking victims are children?
A) “Protect Every Adult”; 1 in 2
B) “End Exploitation Now”; 1 in 4
C) “Leave No Child Behind in the Fight Against Human Trafficking”; 1 in 3
D) “Fight Online Exploitation”; 1 in 5
E) “Save Our Future”; 1 in 6
Answer: C) “Leave No Child Behind in the Fight Against Human Trafficking”; 1 in 3

Event and Location:

• Event: World Day Against Trafficking in Persons
• Location: Globally observed

Mandates and Objectives:

• Date: July 30, 2024
• Theme: “Leave No Child Behind in the Fight Against Human Trafficking”
• Primary Aim: Urge accelerated action to end child trafficking
• Statistics:
  • Children represent 1 in 3 victims of human trafficking globally
  • In regions like Sub-Saharan Africa, North Africa, and Latin America and the Caribbean, children make up 60% of detected trafficking victims

Significance:

• Challenges Faced:
  • Increased vulnerability due to overlapping crises such as armed conflicts, pandemics, economic hardships, and environmental challenges
  • Exploitation through online platforms, social media, and the dark web
• Forms of Trafficking:
  • Forced labour
  • Criminal activities or begging
  • Illegal adoption
  • Recruitment into armed forces
  • Online and sexual abuse and exploitation
• Root Causes:
  • Poverty and inequality
  • Inadequate support for unaccompanied children
  • Armed conflicts
  • Dysfunctional families and lack of parental care

Action Needed:

• At National and International Levels:
  • Prioritize child protection
  • Bolster legislation and improve law enforcement
  • Allocate resources to combat child trafficking
  • Address root causes like poverty and inequality
• For Online Exploitation:
  • Collaboration between tech companies and law enforcement
  • Robust legal frameworks
• Role of Civil Society:
  • Raise awareness
  • Provide support services
  • Advocate for policy reforms

Important Terms Explained:

• UNODC: United Nations Office on Drugs and Crime, responsible for assisting Member States in their struggle against illicit drugs, crime, and terrorism.
• GLOTIP: Global Report on Trafficking in Persons, published by UNODC, provides data and analysis on human trafficking.

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Sports – Daily Current Affairs July 30

4. Which countries will host the 2025 and 2027 Men’s Asia Cup cricket tournaments, and in what formats will these tournaments be held?
A) India and Pakistan; T20 and ODI
B) Sri Lanka and Bangladesh; T20 and ODI
C) India and Bangladesh; T20 and ODI
D) Pakistan and Sri Lanka; ODI and T20
E) India and Sri Lanka; ODI and T20
Answer: C) India and Bangladesh; T20 and ODI

Event and Location:

• Event: Men’s Asia Cup Cricket Tournaments
• Locations: India (2025), Bangladesh (2027)

Mandates and Objectives:

• 2025 Edition:
  • Host: India
  • Format: T20
  • Purpose: Precursor to the T20 World Cup in India in 2026
• 2027 Edition:
  • Host: Bangladesh
  • Format: ODI
  • Purpose: Precursor to the 50-over World Cup in South Africa in 2027

Significance:

• Historical Context: Since 2016, the Asia Cup has been used as a dress rehearsal for the respective World Cup formats.
• 2023 Edition: Hosted by Pakistan in a ‘Hybrid Model’ due to India’s refusal to travel to Pakistan, with matches held in Sri Lanka.
• Team Participation: Involves teams from Afghanistan, India, Pakistan, Sri Lanka, Bangladesh, and one non-Test playing member of the ACC selected through qualifying events.
• Defending Champions: India, having won three of the last four editions, including the 2023 50-over final against Sri Lanka in Colombo.

Important Terms Explained:

• Asian Cricket Council (ACC): Governing body for cricket in Asia, responsible for organizing the Asia Cup.
• Hybrid Model: A format where matches are hosted in multiple countries due to logistical or political reasons.

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5. Which Indian tennis player announced their retirement after the Paris 2024 Olympics, and in which event did they bow out?
A) Leander Paes; Mixed Doubles
B) Mahesh Bhupathi; Men’s Singles
C) Rohan Bopanna; Men’s Doubles
D) Sania Mirza; Women’s Doubles
E) Somdev Devvarman; Men’s Singles
Answer: C) Rohan Bopanna; Men’s Doubles

Event and Location:

• Event: Retirement of Rohan Bopanna from Indian tennis
• Location: Paris 2024 Olympics, Paris, France

Mandates and Objectives:

• Announcement Date: July 30, 2024
• Match Details:
  • Event: Men’s Doubles first round
  • Partners: Rohan Bopanna and N. Sriram Balaji
  • Opponents: Gael Monfils and Edouard Roger-Vasselin (France)
  • Result: Lost 7-5, 6-2

Significance:

• Retirement: Marks the end of Rohan Bopanna’s career in Indian tennis after the Olympics exit.
• Career Highlights:
  • Asian Games 2022: Won gold in mixed doubles with Rutuja Bhosale in Hangzhou.
  • Davis Cup: Ended 21-year Davis Cup career in September 2023 after helping India beat Morocco in their World Group II match.
  • Grand Slam Titles:
    • 2024 Australian Open (Men’s Doubles with Matthew Ebden) – Oldest man to win a Grand Slam title in the Open Era at 43 years and nine months.
    • 2017 French Open (Mixed Doubles).
  • Recent Achievement: Reached the semifinals of the French Open 2024 with Matthew Ebden.

Future Plans:

• ATP Circuit: Despite retiring from Indian tennis, Rohan Bopanna will continue to play in the ATP circuit.

Important Terms Explained:

• Men’s Doubles: A tennis match where two players team up to play against another duo.
• Davis Cup: An international team event in men’s tennis.
• Grand Slam: The four most important annual tennis events (Australian Open, French Open, Wimbledon, and US Open).

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6. Which event did Manu Bhaker and Sarabjot Singh win bronze in at the Paris 2024 Olympics?
A) Men’s 10m air pistol
B) Women’s 10m air pistol
C) Mixed team 10m air pistol
D) Men’s 25m rapid fire pistol
E) Women’s 25m rapid fire pistol
Answer: C) Mixed team 10m air pistol

Event and Location:

• Event: 10m air pistol mixed team event
• Location: Paris 2024 Olympics

Details of the Match:

• Result: Manu Bhaker and Sarabjot Singh won bronze by defeating South Korea 16-10.
• Match Progress:
  • Lost the first series
  • Led 4-2 after the third series
  • Extended the lead to 8-2 after five series
  • South Korea closed the gap to 6-10 after the eighth series
  • Final score: 16-10 in favor of India

Significance:

• Manu Bhaker:
  • First Indian to win multiple medals at a single Olympic Games
  • Opened India’s account at the 2024 Paris Olympics with a bronze in the women’s 10m air pistol event.
• Sarabjot Singh:
  • This is his first Olympic medal

Important Terms Explained:

• 10m Air Pistol: A shooting event where participants fire a pistol at a target 10 meters away. The mixed team event involves teams of one male and one female shooter.

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Ranking – Daily Current Affairs July 30

7. Which two Indian establishments were featured on TIME Magazine’s ‘World’s Greatest Places’ list for 2024?
A) Taj Mahal and Manam Chocolate
B) Manam Chocolate and Naar
C) Red Fort and Naar
D) Manam Chocolate and Indian Museum
E) Gateway of India and Naar
Answer: B) Manam Chocolate and Naar

Event and Location:

• Event: Inclusion of two Indian establishments in TIME Magazine’s ‘World’s Greatest Places’ 2024 list
• Location: Hyderabad, Telangana and Himachal Pradesh, India

Details of Establishments:

• Manam Chocolate:
  • Location: Hyderabad, Telangana
  • Description: A premium craft chocolate brand that champions Indian-grown cacao.
  • Features:
    • Established its flagship experiential space, Manam Chocolate Karkhana, in August 2023.
    • Offers a variety of products including chai biscuit and pistachio fudge chocolate bars, curry leaf shortbread biscuits, almond praline clusters, croissants, toasted coconut macarons, and chakkarakeli banana soft serve.
    • The space includes an airy, glass-walled atrium café that serves sweet and savoury items around a cacao tree.
  • Recognition: Known for its international accolades and innovative approach to craft chocolate.
  • Quote: Chaitanya Muppala, Founder of Manam Chocolate, expressed pride in being recognized globally so early in their journey.
• Naar:
  • Location: Himachal Pradesh
  • Description: An intimate restaurant in a boutique hotel, helmed by celebrated chef Prateek Sadhu.
  • Features:
    • Focuses on celebrating the bounty of the mountains and aims to establish itself as a unique destination restaurant.
    • Offers dishes such as Himachali yak cheese, juniper-smoked lamb with Kashmiri mushqbudji rice, Ladakhi buckwheat pasta, Naga bamboo shoot pickles, and galgal lemons from Uttarakhand.
    • Accommodates 16 diners at a time, providing a personalized and exclusive dining experience.
  • Recognition: Praised for its innovative and regionally inspired cuisine.

Selection Process:

• Criteria: TIME Magazine’s list focuses on places offering new and exciting experiences.
• Nominations: Places were nominated by TIME’s international network of correspondents, contributors, and through an application process.
• Categories: Included hotels, cruises, restaurants, attractions, museums, parks, and more.

Important Terms Explained:

• TIME Magazine’s ‘World’s Greatest Places’: An annual list recognizing 100 extraordinary establishments worldwide that stand out in their field.
• Craft Chocolate: High-quality chocolate made in small batches, often emphasizing unique flavors and local ingredients.
• Boutique Hotel: A small, stylish hotel typically offering a unique, personalized experience.

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Banking and Finance – Daily Current Affairs July 30

8. Which companies recently secured the cross-border payment aggregator licence from the Reserve Bank of India (RBI), and what can they now offer with this licence?
A) Paytm, Google Pay, PhonePe; Merchant services only
B) PayPal, Razorpay, Stripe; Domestic transactions only
C) Amazon Pay, Adyen, BillDesk; International trade payment services
D) PayU, Citrus Pay, Mobikwik; Cross-border remittance services
E) Square, Worldpay, Venmo; Local merchant payment methods
Answer: C) Amazon Pay, Adyen, BillDesk; International trade payment services

Event and Location:

• Event: Securing cross-border payment aggregator licence
• Location: India

Mandates and Objectives:

• Date of Licences:
  • Cashfree: July 22, 2024
  • Adyen and Amazon Pay: July 25, 2024
  • BillDesk: July 29, 2024
• Objective:
  • Provide payment services for international trade.
  • Offer merchant payment services in the domestic market.

Significance:

• Market Opportunity:
  • India is a significant market for international remittances and freelancers.
  • According to the Economic Survey 2024, India is expected to receive $129 billion in remittances by 2025.
• Services Enabled by Licence:
  • Payment companies can now offer payment services in the export-import space.
  • Facilitate Indian exporters in accepting payments in international currencies.
  • Assist global brands in selling in India and accepting local payment methods.

Companies Involved:

• BillDesk: One of the largest bill processing entities in India.
• Amazon Pay: Offers mobile wallet payments, UPI-based transactions, and all forms of bill payments.
• Adyen: A global payment company headquartered in the Netherlands, processed close to 300 billion euros in transactions in the first quarter of 2024.

Important Terms Explained:

• Cross-Border Payment Aggregator Licence: A licence that allows payment companies to provide services for international trade, including accepting payments in multiple currencies and facilitating transactions between domestic and international entities.
• Merchant Payment Services: Services that enable merchants to accept payments from customers, including mobile wallet payments, UPI transactions, and bill payments.

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9. Which entities have entered the test phase of the RBI’s fifth cohort for the regulatory sandbox, and what are their innovative solutions?
A) Connectingdot Consultancy; Predicting loan defaults
B) Epifi Technologies; Digital NRE/NRO account opening
C) Finagg Technologies; Blockchain-based vendor financing
D) Indian Banks’ Digital Infrastructure Company; Deep tier financing solution
E) All of the above
Answer: E) All of the above

Event and Location:

• Event: Initiation of the test phase for the fifth cohort of RBI’s regulatory sandbox
• Location: India
• Announcement Date: October 2023
• Test Phase Start: August 2024

Mandates and Objectives:

• Objective: Test innovative solutions in a controlled environment to promote financial technology and innovation.
• Theme: Theme-neutral (open to a variety of financial technologies)
• Applications Received: 22
• Selected for Testing: 5

Selected Entities and Solutions:

• Connectingdot Consultancy Private Limited:
  • Solution: High accuracy in predicting loan defaults by categorizing loan portfolios into risk categories (high, medium, low).
  • Benefits: Provides reasons for borrower defaults and recommends risk mitigation pathways for banks/lenders.
• Epifi Technologies Private Limited:
  • Solution: Digital opening of NRE/NRO accounts through video KYC and identity validations.
  • Benefits: Reduces cost and turnaround time, eliminates the need for physical documentation and verification, and provides a seamless account opening experience for NRIs.
• Finagg Technologies:
  • Solution: Blockchain-based deep tier vendor financing for MSMEs in procurement supply chains of large enterprises (anchors).
  • Benefits: Converts receivables into blockchain tokens, enabling MSMEs to access credit from banks/NBFCs easily and affordably.
• Indian Banks’ Digital Infrastructure Company (IBDIC):
  • Solution: Deep tier financing solution using blockchain and smart contracts for MSMEs in supply chains.
  • Benefits: Tokenizes OEM invoices accepted by anchors, facilitates digital transfer of tokens for payments, and provides affordable credit to MSMEs.
• Signzy Technologies:
  • Solution: Unassisted video KYC solution for users to complete KYC independently without officials.
  • Benefits: Reduces time, increases success rates, lowers customer drop-offs, and ensures efficient KYC experience for both customers and regulated entities.

Important Terms Explained:

• Regulatory Sandbox: A framework set up by a regulator that allows fintech companies to test their innovations in a controlled environment with real customers.
• NRE/NRO Accounts: Non-Resident External (NRE) and Non-Resident Ordinary (NRO) accounts are bank accounts in India for NRIs to manage their income earned abroad and in India, respectively.
• Blockchain: A decentralized digital ledger that records transactions across many computers in a way that ensures security and transparency.

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Business and Economy – Daily Current Affairs July 30

10. What has the Competition Commission of India (CCI) approved regarding Mangalore Chemicals & Fertilizers Limited (MCFL) and Paradeep Phosphates Limited (PPL)?
A) Acquisition of PPL by MCFL
B) Merger of PPL with Zuari Agro Chemicals Ltd
C) Amalgamation of MCFL with PPL and acquisition of MCFL shares by ZMPPL
D) Acquisition of ZMPPL by PPL
E) Merger of MCFL with Zuari Maroc Phosphates Private Limited
Answer: C) Amalgamation of MCFL with PPL and acquisition of MCFL shares by ZMPPL

Event and Location:

• Event: Approval by Competition Commission of India (CCI)
• Location: India
• Announcement Date: July 30, 2024

Mandates and Objectives:

• Amalgamation and Acquisition:
  • Amalgamation: Mangalore Chemicals & Fertilizers Limited (MCFL) will be amalgamated with Paradeep Phosphates Limited (PPL).
  • Acquisition: Zuari Maroc Phosphates Private Limited (ZMPPL) will acquire 3,92,06,000 equity shares of MCFL from Zuari Agro Chemicals Ltd (ZACL).

Companies Involved:

• Paradeep Phosphates Limited (PPL):
  • Ownership: Majority shareholding held by ZMPPL.
  • Primary Activities: Production and marketing of complex phosphatic fertilizers.
  • Group: Part of the Adventz group of companies.
• Mangalore Chemicals & Fertilizers Limited (MCFL):
  • Ownership: Majority shareholding (54.03%) held by ZACL.
  • Primary Activities: Production and marketing of complex phosphatic fertilizers.
  • Group: Part of the Adventz group of companies.
• Zuari Maroc Phosphates Private Limited (ZMPPL):
  • Ownership: 50:50 joint venture between Zuari Agro Chemicals Ltd (ZACL) and OCP S.A. (OCP).
  • Primary Activities: Trading of fertilizers.
  • Current Stake: Holds 56.08% equity stake in PPL.

Significance:

• Market Impact: The amalgamation and acquisition will streamline operations within the Adventz group, potentially leading to greater efficiency in the production and marketing of phosphatic fertilizers.
• Strategic Realignment: The consolidation of assets and operations under PPL will enhance the group’s market position and operational capabilities.

Future Implications:

• Detailed Order: The CCI will issue a detailed order providing further specifics on the approval and its implications for the market and stakeholders.

Important Terms Explained:

• Amalgamation: The combination of two or more companies into a new entity.
• Equity Shares: Shares that represent ownership in a company, entitling shareholders to a portion of the profits.

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11. What is the primary objective of the co-lending partnership between UGRO Capital and SIDBI?
A) To enhance digital literacy in rural areas
B) To provide housing loans to urban populations
C) To offer timely, affordable credit to MSMEs
D) To fund large-scale infrastructure projects
E) To support agricultural advancements
Answer: C) To offer timely, affordable credit to MSMEs

Event and Location:

• Event: Signing of co-lending partnership between UGRO Capital and SIDBI
• Date: July 30, 2024

Mandates and Objectives:

• Partnership Aim: Provide timely and affordable credit to Micro, Small, and Medium Enterprises (MSMEs).
• Organizations Involved:
  • UGRO Capital: A data-tech non-banking financial company (NBFC).
  • SIDBI: Small Industries Development Bank of India, a financial institution dedicated to the growth and development of MSMEs in India.

Significance:

• Impact on MSMEs:
  • Facilitates access to credit for MSMEs, aiding their growth and development.
  • Helps in overcoming the challenges of financing for small businesses.
• Economic Growth: Supports the broader economic objective of fostering entrepreneurship and employment through the growth of MSMEs.

Important Terms Explained:

• Co-Lending: A financing arrangement where two or more lenders share the lending risks and benefits. In this case, UGRO Capital and SIDBI collaborate to provide loans.
• NBFC (Non-Banking Financial Company): Financial institutions that offer various banking services but do not hold a banking license.
• MSMEs (Micro, Small, and Medium Enterprises): Businesses that maintain revenues, assets, or number of employees below a certain threshold. They are crucial for economic growth and job creation.

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12. What new device did Paytm launch for offline merchants, and what are its primary features?
A) NFC card reader; accepts only NFC payments
B) QR code scanner; displays transaction amounts
C) NFC card soundbox; enables UPI and NFC card payments
D) Mobile POS terminal; supports multiple languages
E) Digital cash register; offers 10-day battery life
Answer: C) NFC card soundbox; enables UPI and NFC card payments

Event and Location:

• Event: Launch of NFC card soundbox by Paytm
• Location: India
• Date: July 30, 2024

Mandates and Objectives:

• Device Name: NFC Card Soundbox
• Purpose: Enable offline merchants to accept UPI and NFC card payments through a single device.

Key Features:

• Payment Methods:
  • Tap debit or credit card (NFC technology)
  • Scan QR code for payments
• Battery Life: 10 days
• Transaction Confirmation:
  • Instant audio confirmation
  • Display screen for transaction amounts

Additional Information:

• Previous Innovations: Paytm pioneered the Soundbox, which supports audio payment notifications in 11 languages.
• Merchant Support: The device is designed to help small merchants by providing affordable and advanced technology to accept all types of payments.

Important Terms Explained:

• NFC (Near Field Communication): A technology that allows wireless communication between devices over short distances, used for contactless payments.
• UPI (Unified Payments Interface): A real-time payment system developed in India, facilitating inter-bank transactions.

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13. What is the primary goal of Infosys’ collaboration with TDC Net?
A) To expand TDC Net’s market share in Asia
B) To modernise TDC Net’s IT infrastructure and improve customer experience
C) To develop new telecommunications hardware
D) To provide cybersecurity solutions
E) To implement blockchain technology in TDC Net’s operations
Answer: B) To modernise TDC Net’s IT infrastructure and improve customer experience

Event and Location:

• Event: Collaboration announcement between Infosys and TDC Net
• Location: Bengaluru, India
• Date: July 30, 2024

Mandates and Objectives:

• Primary Goals:
  • Modernise TDC Net’s IT infrastructure
  • Improve customer experience
  • Optimise IT and operational service costs

Important Terms Explained:

• AI-Driven Hyper-Automation: The use of artificial intelligence to automate complex processes and workflows, improving efficiency and reducing manual intervention.
• Customer-Centric Technology Company: A business model that prioritizes customer needs and experiences in all aspects of operations and service delivery.

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Acquisitions and Mergers – Daily Current Affairs July 30

14. What acquisition did the Competition Commission of India (CCI) recently approve, and which three shareholders will receive minority stakes in Bunge as part of the transaction?
A) Bunge acquires Glencore; shareholders are CPP Investments and BCI
B) Bunge acquires Viterra; shareholders are Glencore, CPP Investments, and BCI
C) Viterra acquires Bunge; shareholders are BCI and Glencore
D) CPP Investments acquires Viterra; shareholders are Bunge and BCI
E) Glencore acquires Bunge; shareholders are Viterra and CPP Investments
Answer: B) Bunge acquires Viterra; shareholders are Glencore, CPP Investments, and BCI

Event and Location:

• Event: CCI approval for acquisition
• Location: India
• Announcement Date: July 30, 2024

Mandates and Objectives:

• Acquisition: 100% share capital of Viterra by Bunge Global SA
• Consideration: Viterra’s three main shareholders, Glencore PLC, Canada Pension Plan Investment Board (CPP Investments), and British Columbia Investment Management Corporation (BCI), will receive Bunge stock and will own minority stakes in Bunge.

Significance:

• Market Impact: This acquisition is set to strengthen Bunge’s position in the global agricultural commodities market, particularly in the sale of oilseed meals and vegetable oils.
• Shareholder Impact: Glencore, CPP Investments, and BCI will hold minority stakes in Bunge, reflecting a strategic realignment of their investment portfolios.

Important Terms Explained:

• Competition Commission of India (CCI): A regulatory body in India responsible for enforcing The Competition Act, 2002 to prevent activities that have an adverse effect on competition.
• Oilseeds: Seeds used to produce vegetable oils, including soybean, sunflower, palm, and others.

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Appointments – Daily Current Affairs July 30

15. Who won the presidential election in Venezuela?
A) Edmundo Gonzalez Urrutia
B) Elvis Amoroso
C) Juan Guaidó
D) Nicolas Maduro
E) María Corina Machado
Answer: D) Nicolas Maduro

Event and Location:

• Event: Presidential Election
• Location: Venezuela

Mandates and Objectives:

• Winner: Nicolas Maduro
• Term: 2025 to 2031
• Votes Received:
  • Nicolas Maduro: 5,150,092 valid votes (51.2% of counted votes)
  • Edmundo Gonzalez Urrutia: 4,445,978 votes (44.2% of counted votes)
• Voter Turnout: 59% of eligible voters
• Polling Stations Counted: 80%

Significance:

• Nicolas Maduro’s Victory: This marks Maduro’s third term as the President of Venezuela.
• Competitive Candidate: Edmundo Gonzalez Urrutia from the Unitary Platform coalition was a significant challenge.
• Number of Candidates: Maduro was running against nine presidential candidates.

Important Terms Explained:

• National Electoral Council (CNE): The principal body overseeing electoral processes in Venezuela.
• Unitary Platform Coalition: A political coalition in Venezuela representing opposition parties.

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Defence – Daily Current Affairs July 30

16. What is the purpose of the Indian Coast Guard’s ‘Suvidha Software Version 1.0’, and where was it launched?
A) To improve maritime patrols; Mumbai
B) To enhance training protocols; Visakhapatnam
C) For logistics management; Chennai
D) To track maritime vessels; Kolkata
E) For communication enhancements; Goa
Answer: B) To enhance training protocols; Visakhapatnam

Event and Location:

• Event: Launch of ‘Suvidha Software Version 1.0’
• Location: Visakhapatnam, Andhra Pradesh
• Date: July 30, 2024

Mandates and Objectives:

• Purpose:
  • Enhance training protocols.
  • Ensure consistency across all Indian Coast Guard (ICG) platforms.

Significance:

• Conference: Launched during the maiden ‘Annual Operational Sea Training Conference’.
• Keynote Address: Delivered by Deputy Director General (Sea Training) Inspector General Anupam Rai.
  • Emphasized the importance of fostering a culture of excellence and adaptability within the ICG.
• Participation: Senior officers from various ICG regions attended.
  • Underlined the need for a unified approach to complex operations.
  • Discussed best practices, shared insights, and aligned strategies to address the dynamic maritime security landscape.
• Commitment: The event underscores ICG’s commitment to excellence and innovation in operational training.

Important Terms Explained:

• Indian Coast Guard (ICG): A maritime security agency responsible for protecting India’s maritime interests and enforcing maritime law.
• Training Protocols: Procedures and guidelines designed to ensure standardized and effective training.

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17. Which facilities are to be established under the UP Defence Industrial Corridor according to the recent MoU signed by the Ministry of Defence (MoD)?
A) Cybersecurity, Artificial Intelligence, and Robotics
B) Unmanned Aerial System, Communications, and Mechanical & Material
C) Marine Technology, Space Exploration, and Quantum Computing
D) Nuclear Technology, Bioengineering, and Cyber Warfare
E) Renewable Energy, Smart Grids, and Nanotechnology
Answer: B) Unmanned Aerial System, Communications, and Mechanical & Material

Event and Location:

• Event: Signing of MoU to set up testing facilities
• Location: New Delhi, India
• Date: July 30, 2024

Mandates and Objectives:

• Facilities to be Established:
  • Mechanical & Material (M&M) Domain: Lucknow
  • Unmanned Aerial System (UAS) Domain: Kanpur
  • Communications Domain: Kanpur

Significance:

• Framework: Part of the Defence Testing Infrastructure Scheme (DTIS)
• Inception of DTIS: Launched in May 2020 by Raksha Mantri Shri Rajnath Singh with an outlay of ₹400 crore.
• Purpose:
  • Promote indigenous defence production
  • Reduce imports
  • Enhance self-reliance in the defence sector

Additional Information:

• Tamil Nadu Defence Industrial Corridor: Agreement to set up three facilities in UAS, Electronic Warfare, and Electro Optics in Chennai was signed on July 2, 2024.

Important Terms Explained:

• UP Defence Industrial Corridor (UPDIC): A project aimed at developing a strong defence manufacturing ecosystem in Uttar Pradesh.
• Defence Testing Infrastructure Scheme (DTIS): A scheme launched to establish state-of-the-art testing facilities in collaboration with private industry and government.

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18. What is the purpose of the MoU signed between iDEX and AFMS, and what initiative will it launch?
A) To enhance cybersecurity for the Armed Forces; Cyber Innovation Challenge
B) To improve logistics and supply chain; Logistics Excellence Program
C) To develop advanced medical technologies; Medical Innovations and Research Advancement (MIRA)
D) To promote AI in warfare; AI Warfare Program
E) To innovate in aerospace technologies; Aerospace Innovation Initiative
Answer: C) To develop advanced medical technologies; Medical Innovations and Research Advancement (MIRA)

Event and Location:

• Event: Signing of MoU between iDEX and AFMS
• Location: New Delhi, India
• Date: July 30, 2024

Mandates and Objectives:

• Purpose: Foster innovation and research in developing novel medical technologies and their induction into the Armed Forces.
• Initiative Launched: Medical Innovations and Research Advancement (MIRA)
• Signatories:
  • iDEX-DIO: Additional Secretary (Defence Production) & CEO, DIO Shri Anurag Bajpai
  • AFMS: Director General of Armed Forces Medical Services Lt Gen Daljit Singh

Significance:

• Defence India Start-up Challenge (DISC) Edition MIRA: Aimed at targeting critical medical challenges faced by the Armed Forces.
• Goals: Create a robust healthcare ecosystem to meet current and future medical needs of the Armed Forces.
• Innovation Focus: Harness the innovative capabilities through iDEX to advance medical science and technology.

Key Highlights:

• iDEX (Innovations for Defence Excellence):
  • Established: By the Defence Innovation Organisation (DIO) under the Department of Defence Production.
  • Achievements: Recipient of the Prime Minister’s Award for Excellence in Public Administration in Innovation Category in 2021.
  • Impact: Engaged with over 400 start-ups and MSMEs, procurement of 37 items worth over Rs 2,000 crore cleared, and has created numerous job opportunities.
  • Initiatives: Launched 11 editions of DISC and the ADITI scheme to promote innovations in critical and strategic defence technologies.
• AFMS (Armed Forces Medical Services):
  • Role: Provide medical care to the Armed Forces and induct new medical technologies.
  • Collaboration Goal: Enhance the quality of medical care and harness innovative capabilities for substantial advancements in medical science and technology.

Important Terms Explained:

• MoU (Memorandum of Understanding): A formal agreement between two or more parties to collaborate on a specific project or initiative.
• iDEX (Innovations for Defence Excellence): A flagship initiative of the Ministry of Defence aimed at fostering innovation in the defence sector.
• AFMS (Armed Forces Medical Services): The medical branch of the Indian Armed Forces responsible for providing medical care and services.

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19. What is the primary purpose of the Indian Army’s E-SeHAT Tele-consultancy module launched on July 30, 2024?
A) To facilitate remote education for soldiers’ families
B) To provide tele-consultation healthcare services for ECHS beneficiaries
C) To enhance communication between military bases
D) To track the health records of active-duty soldiers
E) To monitor the fitness levels of new recruits
Answer: B) To provide tele-consultation healthcare services for ECHS beneficiaries

Event and Location:

• Event: Launch of E-SeHAT Tele-consultancy module
• Location: Launched at 12 ECHS Polyclinics including Baramulla, Imphal, Churachandpur, Dimapur, and Aizawal
• Date: July 30, 2024

Mandates and Objectives:

• Purpose: Enable ECHS beneficiaries to obtain online tele-consultation for medical treatment from their homes without visiting the ECHS Polyclinic.
• Features:
  • Provides healthcare services through safe and structured video-based clinical consultations.
  • Adheres to telemedicine practice guidelines issued by the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare in consultation with NITI AAYOG (March 2020).

Implementation:

• IT Infrastructure: IT hardware and equipment provided to all 427 ECHS Polyclinics.
• Training: Staff trained to offer online medical advice.
• Future Phases:
  • Pre-consultation vital checks.
  • Home delivery of medicines.
  • Referral to empaneled hospitals by Medical Officers.

Significance:

• Pilot Project: Launched at 12 ECHS Polyclinics, aiming for a pan India rollout in November 2024.
• Digital India Vision: Aligns with the Government of India’s Digital India vision, promoting digital inclusivity and efficiency in public services.
• Healthcare Transformation: Aims to transform healthcare delivery for veterans, ensuring timely and quality medical attention from the comfort of their homes.

Important Terms Explained:

• E-SeHAT: Electronic Services e-Health Assistance and Tele-consultation, a module providing tele-consultation services to ECHS beneficiaries.
• ECHS (Ex-Servicemen Contributory Health Scheme): A healthcare scheme providing medical services to ex-servicemen and their dependents.

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National Affairs – Daily Current Affairs July 30

20. What is the primary objective of the ‘One DAE One Subscription’ (ODOS) initiative, and where was it inaugurated?
A) To enhance nuclear safety; New Delhi
B) To provide medical aid; Chennai
C) To enable read and publish access to research papers; Mumbai
D) To fund scientific projects; Bengaluru
E) To organize scientific conferences; Hyderabad
Answer: C) To enable read and publish access to research papers; Mumbai

Event and Location:

• Event: Inauguration of ‘One DAE One Subscription’ (ODOS)
• Location: Tata Memorial Hospital, Mumbai
• Date: July 29, 2024

Mandates and Objectives:

• Objective:
  • Enable Department of Atomic Energy (DAE) and all its units/subunits (about 60) to access national and international research papers and scientific journals under one umbrella.
  • Facilitate digital sharing of resources and collective evolution of knowledge.
• Consortium Agreements:
  • Signed with M/s. Wiley India Private Limited
  • Signed with M/s. Springer Nature Group

Significance:

• Transformative Agreement:
  • Described as a significant milestone by Dr. A. K. Mohanty, Secretary, DAE and Chairman AEC.
  • Expected to benefit thousands of scientists, engineers, students of Homi Bhabha National Institute (HBNI), and researchers of aided institutes.
  • ODOS will later merge with the One Nation One Subscription (ONOS) initiative by the Office of the Principal Scientific Advisor to the Government of India.
• Goals:
  • Make knowledge accessible to as many people as possible.
  • Support the vision of a developed India by democratizing access to scientific information.

Important Terms Explained:

• ODOS (One DAE One Subscription): Initiative to provide unified access to research and scientific journals for all units under the Department of Atomic Energy.
• ONOS (One Nation One Subscription): A larger national initiative to make scientific knowledge accessible across the nation, initiated by the Office of the Principal Scientific Advisor to the Government of India.

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21. Who are the primary participants in the five-day Digital Governance training program organized by the National Centre for Good Governance (NCGG) and IIM Vishakhapatnam?
A) IT students from various colleges
B) Government officials from various states
C) Private sector employees
D) International delegates
E) Local business owners
Answer: B) Government officials from various states

Event and Location:

• Event: Five-Day Training Programme on Digital Governance
• Location: Indian Institute of Management (IIM), Vishakhapatnam
• Dates: July 29, 2024 – August 2, 2024

Mandates and Objectives:

• Organizers: National Centre for Good Governance (NCGG) in partnership with IIM Vishakhapatnam
• Participants: 19 senior officers from IT departments representing 11 states
• Ranks: Commissioner, Project Director, Program Director, Chief Operating Officer, Assistant Director, Joint Director

Program Objectives:

• Purpose: Develop competencies and aptitude of officers to conceptualize and implement e-governance projects.
• Focus: Equip officers with skills and strategies for utilizing digital technologies in public service delivery.

Important Terms Explained:

• Digital Governance: Use of digital technologies to improve government service delivery, increase transparency, and enhance citizen engagement.
• E-Governance: Electronic governance, where government services are provided to citizens through electronic means.
• Business Process Reengineering: A business management strategy focusing on the analysis and redesign of workflows and processes within an organization.

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22. What initiative did Shri Dharmendra Pradhan launch, and what is its primary aim?
A) Skill India Mission; to enhance digital literacy
B) Digital India Initiative; to improve internet access
C) NATS 2.0 Portal; to democratize apprenticeship and bridge skills gap
D) Startup India Scheme; to support new businesses
E) Make in India; to boost manufacturing
Answer: C) NATS 2.0 Portal; to democratize apprenticeship and bridge skills gap

Event and Location:

• Event: Launch of National Apprenticeship and Training Scheme 2.0 (NATS 2.0) Portal
• Location: New Delhi, India
• Date: July 30, 2024

Mandates and Objectives:

• Initiative: NATS 2.0 Portal
• Primary Aim: Democratize apprenticeship, bridge skills gap, fulfill youth aspirations, and make them future-ready.
• Fund Disbursal: ₹100 crore stipends disbursed to apprentices through Direct Benefits Transfer (DBT) mode.
• Participants: 19 senior officers from IT departments representing 11 states attended the program.

Important Terms Explained:

• Direct Benefits Transfer (DBT): A system to transfer subsidies and benefits directly to beneficiaries’ bank accounts.
• Apprenticeship Embedded Degree Programmes (AEDP): Programs integrating vocational training with academic education, facilitating skill development and employability.

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Over All Review

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