Daily Current Affairs July 23

Dear Champions, as you all know that a lot of competitive exams have been notified consequently. Candidates have to prepare themselves according to the level of competition and expectation of the Recruitment board. Regarding that one of the most important topic is Daily Current Affairs July 23. Current Affairs in the form of contemporary events of national & international play a crucial role in almost every competitive exams like Banking, Insurance, SSC, UPSC, TNPSC, Railway etc.

Current affairs are the most dynamic yet scoring among all sections and need to be prepared from the right source. Here, we cafunsta team, providing Daily GK Updates, Current Affairs Questions, and Monthly current affairs pdf.

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July 23 | Daily Current Affairs 2025

Important Days – Daily Current Affairs July 23

1. When was the first-ever radio broadcast in India aired and from which station?
A) 1936 from Delhi Station
B) 1927 from Bombay Station
C) 1956 from Kolkata Station
D) 1947 from Lucknow Station
E) 1957 from Chennai Station
Answer: B) 1927 from Bombay Station

Event and Location:

• Event: Celebration of National Broadcasting Day 2025
• Location: India (originated from Bombay)
• Date: 23 July 2025

Mandates and Objectives:

• Mandates:
  • To commemorate the first radio broadcast in India which aired on 23 July 1927 from the Bombay Station under the Indian Broadcasting Company.
• Objectives:
  • To recognize the historic and cultural significance of radio in India’s educational, social, and rural development, and its role in nation-building through communication.

Important Terms Explained:

• All India Radio (AIR):
  • Renamed from Indian State Broadcasting Service on 8 June 1936, it became India’s national radio broadcaster.
• Akashvani:
  • Official name adopted in 1956 for All India Radio, meaning “voice from the sky,” used as the national identity of India’s radio service.
• Vividh Bharati Service:
  • Launched in 1957, this service focused on popular film music and became one of AIR’s most widely listened-to channels across India.

Tabular Summary:

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Sports – Daily Current Affairs July 23

2. What major change will the BCCI undergo under the new National Sports Governance Bill, 2025?
A) Become part of the Indian Olympic Association
B) Get exempted from RTI
C) Be recognised as a National Sports Federation
D) Merge with the Sports Authority of India
E) Cease all international cricket operations
Answer: C) Be recognised as a National Sports Federation

Event and Location:

• Event: BCCI brought under the ambit of the National Sports Governance Bill
• Location: India (applicable nationwide)
• Date: 22 July 2025

Mandates and Objectives:

• Mandates: The Board of Control for Cricket in India (BCCI) will now be recognised as a National Sports Federation (NSF) under the National Sports Governance Bill, 2025, and will follow all ministry regulations applicable to other sports bodies.
• Objectives: To ensure transparency, athlete representation, and regulatory accountability in Indian sports, including cricket, and align governance with global standards like the Olympic Charter.

Important Terms Explained:

• National Sports Governance Bill, 2025: A draft law introduced to reform and regulate the governance of sports bodies in India, ensuring athlete-first policies, gender inclusion, and dispute resolution through a proposed National Sports Board (NSB).
• National Sports Federation (NSF): Officially recognised sports bodies under the Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports, governed by national policies and eligible for government oversight and funding.
• National Sports Board (NSB): A proposed new regulatory authority under the bill, empowered to grant NSF status, oversee compliance, suspend federations, and appoint ad-hoc bodies in cases of governance failure.

Tabular Summary:

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3. Which Indian chess player reached the semifinals of the FIDE World Women’s Chess Cup 2025 by defeating Harika Dronavalli?
A) Koneru Humpy
B) R Vaishali
C) Bhakti Kulkarni
D) Divya Deshmukh
E) Tania Sachdev
Answer: D) Divya Deshmukh

Event and Location:

• Event: Divya Deshmukh reaches semifinals of FIDE World Women’s Chess Cup 2025
• Location: FIDE World Women’s Chess Cup venue (international)
• Date: 22 July 2025

Mandates and Objectives:

• Mandates:
  • Divya Deshmukh, an International Master, defeated fellow Indian GM Harika Dronavalli 2–0 in rapid tiebreaks after two classical draws to enter the semifinals of the prestigious FIDE Women’s Chess World Cup 2025.
• Objectives:
  • The objective of the tournament is to determine qualifiers for the Women’s Candidates Tournament, which will decide the challenger for the Women’s World Chess Championship.

Important Terms Explained:

• FIDE:
  • Fédération Internationale des Échecs (International Chess Federation), the global governing body for chess, which organizes world championships and international rating systems.
• FIDE Women’s Chess World Cup:
  • A knockout-format chess tournament organized by FIDE that serves as a qualifying event for the Women’s Candidates Tournament.
• Italian Opening:
  • A classical chess opening beginning with the moves 1.e4 e5 2.Nf3 Nc6 3.Bc4, used effectively by Divya Deshmukh to gain early initiative.

Tabular Summary:

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Banking and Finance – Daily Current Affairs July 23

4. What is the key benefit of the UPI–PayPal collaboration under the new PayPal World platform?
A) Free credit cards for UPI users
B) Unified login system for banks
C) Global P2P and e-commerce payments using UPI
D) Launch of India’s first crypto wallet
E) Introduction of UPI-based taxation model
Answer: C) Global P2P and e-commerce payments using UPI

Event and Location:

• Event: UPI–PayPal partnership announced under PayPal World
• Location: Global, with specific relevance to India and PayPal-accepting countries
• Date: July 2025 (announcement)

Mandates and Objectives:

• Mandates: PayPal has announced the launch of PayPal World, a global interoperable payment platform, which includes a strategic partnership with NPCI International to enable UPI-based international transactions.
• Objectives: To simplify cross-border payments by integrating UPI into global e-commerce and peer-to-peer transactions via PayPal, reduce currency conversion fees, and promote digital payment inclusivity and convenience.

Important Terms Explained:

• UPI (Unified Payments Interface): A real-time Indian digital payment system developed by NPCI, allowing instant fund transfers across banks using mobile platforms.
• PayPal World: A new global payment platform from PayPal that integrates various national payment systems like UPI, Tenpay, Venmo, and Mercado Pago to allow cross-border and inter-wallet transactions.
• NPCI International Payments Limited (NIPL): A subsidiary of NPCI responsible for promoting UPI and RuPay globally through collaborations and integrations like the PayPal World partnership.

Tabular Summary:

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5. How much loan amount have Public Sector Banks (PSBs) written off between FY16 and FY25?
A) ₹6.5 lakh crore
B) ₹8.9 lakh crore
C) ₹10 lakh crore
D) ₹12.08 lakh crore
E) ₹14 lakh crore
Answer: D) ₹12.08 lakh crore

Event and Location:

• Event: Public Sector Banks write off over ₹12 lakh crore in NPAs over 9 years
• Location: India
• Date: July 23, 2025 (as reported to Rajya Sabha)

Mandates and Objectives:

• Mandates:
  • Public Sector Banks have written off ₹12,08,828 crore in non-performing assets (NPAs) from FY2015-16 to FY2024-25 as per RBI guidelines and internal bank policies. Additionally, over 48,000 bank recruitments are underway to fill workforce gaps.
• Objectives:
  • The objective of these write-offs is to clean up bank balance sheets, recover loans through legal and recovery channels, and maintain operational efficiency while addressing employment requirements within PSBs.

Important Terms Explained:

• Non-Performing Assets (NPAs):
  • Loans or advances where the borrower has stopped making interest or principal repayments for a period of 90 days or more.
• SARFAESI Act (2002):
  • Securitisation and Reconstruction of Financial Assets and Enforcement of Security Interest Act empowers banks and financial institutions to recover dues without the court’s intervention by auctioning the security assets of the borrower.
• Fugitive Economic Offenders Act (FEOA):
  • A law enacted to confiscate properties of economic offenders who have fled the country to avoid prosecution, with provisions to declare them as fugitive economic offenders and seize their assets.
• Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code (IBC):
  • A 2016 reform law providing a time-bound process for resolving insolvency among companies and individuals, allowing creditors to initiate insolvency proceedings.

Tabular Summary:

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Business and Economy – Daily Current Affairs July 23

6. Which category saw the highest percentage growth in IP filings in India over the past five years?
A) Patents
B) Trademarks
C) Designs
D) Copyright
E) Geographical Indications
Answer: E) Geographical Indications

Event and Location:

• Event: Surge in IP filings and reforms in India’s intellectual property ecosystem
• Location: India
• Date: 22 July 2025

Mandates and Objectives:

• Mandates:
  • The Government of India has modernized and digitized the IP filing process, introduced fee concessions, and reformed procedures for patents, trademarks, designs, and Geographical Indications (GIs).
• Objectives:
  • To promote innovation, strengthen protection of indigenous products, improve IP filing convenience and speed, and encourage participation from startups, MSMEs, and educational institutions.

Important Terms Explained:

• Geographical Indications (GIs): Signs used on products with specific geographical origin and qualities, receiving a 380% growth in registrations over five years.
• NIPAM (National Intellectual Property Awareness Mission): A mission launched in 2021 to create awareness of intellectual property in schools and colleges, covering over 25 lakh students across India.
• SIPP (Startups Intellectual Property Protection) Scheme: A scheme launched in 2016 that offers free IP facilitation for startups, now extended to educational institutions and international filings.
• Certificate of Inventorship: A newly introduced certification to formally recognize inventors for their contributions to patented inventions.
• IP Dashboard: A real-time public dashboard that offers data on filing and processing of various IP applications like patents, trademarks, designs, and GIs.
• IP Sarthi Chatbot: An AI-powered assistant that offers instant guidance to users on IP filing procedures.

Tabular Summary:

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7. What was the gross NPA percentage of public sector banks as of March 2025, as per the government’s report to Parliament?
A) 4.97%
B) 3.47%
C) 2.58%
D) 7.28%
E) 9.11%
Answer: C) 2.58%

Event and Location:

• Event: Decline in gross NPAs of public sector banks over five years
• Location: India (National)
• Date: 22 July 2025

Mandates and Objectives:

• Mandates:
  • The Centre and Reserve Bank of India (RBI) have implemented multiple reforms and resolution frameworks to reduce Gross NPAs in public sector banks.
• Objectives:
  • To strengthen credit discipline, improve recovery of bad loans, and enhance the financial health and stability of public sector banks.

Important Terms Explained:

• Gross Non-Performing Assets (Gross NPA): The total value of defaulted loans where principal or interest payments are overdue for 90 days or more.
• Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code (IBC): A comprehensive legal framework introduced to resolve insolvencies quickly and efficiently, ensuring creditors can recover dues while removing errant promoters.
• Debt Recovery Tribunals (DRTs): Specialised tribunals set up to facilitate quicker resolution and recovery of debts for banks and financial institutions.
• SARFAESI Act: The Securitisation and Reconstruction of Financial Assets and Enforcement of Security Interest Act, 2002 empowers banks to recover NPAs without court intervention by auctioning assets.
• Prudential Framework by RBI: A mechanism for early identification and time-bound resolution of stressed assets with incentives for early adoption of restructuring plans.

Tabular Summary:

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Acquisitions and Mergers – Daily Current Affairs July 23

8. Titan Company is set to acquire what percentage stake in Gulf-based Damas Jewellery?
A) 49%
B) 51%
C) 67%
D) 75%
E) 100%
Answer: C) 67%

Event and Location:

• Event: Titan to acquire 67% stake in Damas Jewellery
• Location: Gulf Cooperation Council (GCC) region – UAE, Saudi Arabia, Qatar, Oman, Kuwait, Bahrain
• Date: July 21, 2025

Mandates and Objectives:

• Mandates:
  • Titan Company Ltd, through its subsidiary Titan Holdings International FZCO, has signed a definitive agreement to acquire a 67% stake in Damas LLC, a major jewellery brand in the GCC region, for $283 million.
• Objectives:
  • The acquisition aims to accelerate Titan’s international jewellery business, enhance its retail presence in the GCC markets, and cater to increasing demand for regionally inspired, high-quality jewellery.

Important Terms Explained:

• Titan Company Ltd:
  • An Indian consumer goods company known for its jewellery, watches, and eyewear under brands like Tanishq, Fastrack, and Titan Eyeplus.
• Damas Jewellery:
  • Founded in 1907 and headquartered in Dubai, Damas is a premium jewellery retailer with 146 stores across the Middle East, blending Arabic and modern aesthetics.
• Enterprise Value:
  • The total value of a business including equity and debt, used in acquisitions to determine a company’s market worth.
• Gulf Cooperation Council (GCC):
  • A regional political and economic union consisting of six Middle Eastern countries—Bahrain, Kuwait, Oman, Qatar, Saudi Arabia, and the United Arab Emirates.

Tabular Summary:

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Appointments – Daily Current Affairs July 23

9. Who among the following were newly appointed as judges of the Delhi High Court in July 2025?
A) Vinod Kumar, Shail Jain, and Madhu Jain
B) V Kameshwar Rao, Arun Monga, and Satyendra Singh
C) Arjun Ram Meghwal, DK Upadhyay, and Om Prakash Shukla
D) Nitin Sambre, Vivek Chaudhary, and Gaurav Mittal
E) Ritu Bahri, Madhu Jain, and Manoj Kumar
Answer: A) Vinod Kumar, Shail Jain, and Madhu Jain

Event and Location:

• Event: Appointment of three new Delhi High Court judges
• Location: Delhi, India
• Date: 23 July 2025

Mandates and Objectives:

• Mandates: The Central Government, following the Supreme Court Collegium’s recommendation, appointed Vinod Kumar, Shail Jain, and Madhu Jain as judges of the Delhi High Court, increasing its working strength to 43 out of a sanctioned 60.
• Objectives: To strengthen the judicial bench, improve case disposal rates, and enhance gender representation within the Delhi High Court.

Important Terms Explained:

• Supreme Court Collegium: A group of the Chief Justice of India and four senior-most SC judges responsible for recommending appointments and transfers of judges in High Courts and the Supreme Court.
• Delhi High Court: One of India’s prominent high courts with jurisdiction over the National Capital Territory (NCT) of Delhi, known for handling high-profile constitutional and civil matters.
• Judicial Officer: A member of the subordinate judiciary (District and Sessions Judges) eligible for elevation to High Courts based on merit, experience, and recommendation.

Tabular Summary:

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Awards – Daily Current Affairs July 23

10. Who were awarded the T.K. Ramanathan Award for best player of the 2024–25 season by the Tamil Nadu Tennis Association (TNTA)?
A) Ramkumar Ramanathan and Sriram Balaji
B) Prithvi Shekar and Sai Samhitha Chamarthi
C) Rethin Pranav and Maaya Rajeshwaran Revathi
D) Manish Suresh Kumar and Diya Ramesh
E) Karthik Karunakaran and Savitha Bhuvaneswaran
Answer: C) Rethin Pranav and Maaya Rajeshwaran Revathi

Event and Location:

• Event: TNTA Annual Day Function and T.K. Ramanathan Award Ceremony
• Location: Madras Cricket Club (MCC), Chennai, Tamil Nadu
• Date: 22 July 2025

Mandates and Objectives:

• Mandates: The Tamil Nadu Tennis Association (TNTA) honoured outstanding tennis players at its annual day function, awarding the T.K. Ramanathan Award to Rethin Pranav and Maaya Rajeshwaran Revathi for the 2024–25 season.
• Objectives: To recognise excellence in tennis, promote youth participation in the sport, and boost public engagement ahead of the Chennai Open WTA 250 event.

Important Terms Explained:

• T.K. Ramanathan Award: An annual award presented by TNTA to the best male and female tennis players in Tamil Nadu, named after the legendary Indian tennis player.
• TNTA (Tamil Nadu Tennis Association): The apex tennis governing body in Tamil Nadu responsible for promoting tennis through tournaments, awards, and training programs.
• Chennai Open (WTA 250): A Women’s Tennis Association event scheduled in Chennai, drawing international players and aimed at elevating tennis in the region.

Tabular Summary:

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11. Who became the first Indian to win the ‘Best Magic Creator 2025’ award at the FISM World Championship of Magic?
A) Neel Madhav
B) Suhani Shah
C) Jason Ladanye
D) Jack Rhodes
E) Anshul Rajput
Answer: B) Suhani Shah

Event and Location:

• Event: Suhani Shah wins Best Magic Creator 2025 at FISM
• Location: Torino, Italy
• Date: July 14–19, 2025 (event duration); Announced on July 23, 2025

Mandates and Objectives:

• Mandates:
  • Suhani Shah was awarded the Best Magic Creator 2025 in the online magic category at the FISM World Championship, becoming the first Indian to win at the global competition.
• Objectives:
  • To recognize and honor outstanding contributions to the art of magic globally and promote cultural representation and artistic excellence on international platforms.

Important Terms Explained:

• FISM (Fédération Internationale des Sociétés Magiques):
  • An international federation for magicians, founded in 1948, that organizes the World Championship of Magic every three years and is often called the Oscars of Magic.
• Best Magic Creator Award:
  • A category introduced for online magic performances, recognizing innovative magic content creators who blend technology, storytelling, and illusion.
• Mentalist:
  • A performer who uses psychological principles, suggestion, and misdirection to create the illusion of mind-reading and thought control, often featured in Suhani Shah’s acts.

Tabular Summary:

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Science and Technology – Daily Current Affairs July 23

12. Which three cities will be connected under the AI-ready network by Tata Communications and AWS?
A) Mumbai, Pune, Bengaluru
B) Delhi, Chennai, Kolkata
C) Mumbai, Hyderabad, Chennai
D) Bengaluru, Hyderabad, Pune
E) Noida, Mumbai, Chennai
Answer: C) Mumbai, Hyderabad, Chennai

Event and Location:

• Event: Tata Communications and AWS announce AI-ready long-distance network collaboration
• Location: India (connecting AWS infrastructure in Mumbai, Hyderabad, and Chennai)
• Date: 22 July 2025

Mandates and Objectives:

• Mandates: Tata Communications is partnering with Amazon Web Services (AWS) to build a high-capacity national long-distance AI-ready network that connects AWS infrastructure in Mumbai, Hyderabad, and Chennai.
• Objectives: To enable scalable AI, ML, and cloud applications across sectors like healthcare, finance, and education, and to boost digital innovation and AI infrastructure across India.

Important Terms Explained:

• AI-Ready Network: A high-performance, resilient network designed to handle massive data loads required for artificial intelligence, machine learning, generative AI, 5G, and high-performance computing.
• AWS (Amazon Web Services): The cloud-computing arm of Amazon, offering infrastructure and platforms for data storage, machine learning, and application hosting.
• AWS Direct Connect & Edge Network: Specialized AWS infrastructure that enhances connectivity and latency performance for global cloud-based operations.

Tabular Summary:

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13. What is the name of the Earth Observation Satellite jointly developed by ISRO and NASA, set to be launched on July 30, 2025?
A) RISAT
B) ASTROSAT
C) NISAR
D) CARTOSAT-3
E) INSAT-4B
Answer: C) NISAR

Event and Location:

• Event: Launch of Earth Observation Satellite NISAR jointly developed by ISRO and NASA
• Location: Satish Dhawan Space Centre, Sriharikota, India
• Date: Scheduled for launch on July 30, 2025, at 17:40 hrs IST

Mandates and Objectives:

• Mandates:
  • The Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO), in collaboration with NASA, will launch NISAR, a next-generation Earth Observation Satellite, using the GSLV F16 heavy-lift rocket into a Sun Synchronous Orbit at 743 km altitude.
• Objectives:
  • The satellite aims to provide high-resolution, all-weather, day-and-night imaging using dual-frequency Synthetic Aperture Radar (SAR) to monitor critical Earth changes including vegetation, ice movements, storm tracking, and soil moisture with 12-day global revisit capability.

Important Terms Explained:

• NISAR (NASA-ISRO Synthetic Aperture Radar):
  • A joint Earth observation mission between NASA and ISRO, NISAR uses dual-frequency SAR technology (L-band and S-band) to monitor changes in the Earth’s surface with high precision.
• Sun Synchronous Orbit:
  • A near-polar orbit that allows a satellite to pass over the same region of Earth at the same local solar time, ideal for consistent lighting conditions in Earth observation.
• Synthetic Aperture Radar (SAR):
  • A form of radar used to create detailed 2D or 3D reconstructions of landscapes. Unlike optical imaging, SAR can penetrate through clouds and operate in darkness.
• SweepSAR Technology:
  • An advanced SAR imaging method that increases swath width and resolution simultaneously—used in NISAR for the first time globally.

Tabular Summary:

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Defence – Daily Current Affairs July 23

14. Which location received the first batch of Apache AH-64 helicopters delivered to the Indian Army in July 2025?
A) Siachen
B) Hindon Airbase
C) Pathankot
D) Leh
E) Jaisalmer
Answer: B) Hindon Airbase

Event and Location:

• Event: First 3 of 6 Apache attack helicopters delivered to the Indian Army
• Location: Hindon Airbase, Uttar Pradesh, India
• Date: 22 July 2025

Mandates and Objectives:

• Mandates:
  • Delivery of three Apache AH-64 attack helicopters from the US to India under a Rs 5,691 crore deal signed in February 2020.
• Objectives:
  • To strengthen India’s defence capabilities, provide aerial support to strike corps, and enhance Army Aviation Corps (AAC) effectiveness in high-conflict zones.

Important Terms Explained:

• Apache AH-64:
  • An American advanced multi-role attack helicopter equipped with Stinger and Hellfire missiles, guns, and rockets, designed for close combat and anti-armour operations.
• Army Aviation Corps (AAC):
  • A specialised wing of the Indian Army responsible for providing aerial surveillance, airlift, and strike capabilities, especially in high-altitude and border zones.
• Prachand Light Combat Helicopters:
  • Indigenous helicopters developed by Hindustan Aeronautics Limited (HAL) under a Rs 62,700 crore deal to support operations in challenging terrains like Siachen and Ladakh.

Tabular Summary:

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International Affairs – Daily Current Affairs July 23

15. What is one of the key expected outcomes of PM Modi’s visit to the UK in July 2025?
A) Signing of India-USA nuclear deal
B) Finalisation of India-UK Free Trade Agreement
C) Launch of UK-India Space Mission
D) Formation of Indo-Maldives Defence Force
E) Inauguration of new Indian Embassy in London
Answer: B) Finalisation of India-UK Free Trade Agreement

Event and Location:

• Event: PM Modi’s 4-day visit to the UK and Maldives
• Location: United Kingdom and Maldives
• Date: 23 July 2025

Mandates and Objectives:

• Mandates: PM Narendra Modi is on a four-day diplomatic visit to the United Kingdom and the Maldives, with a focus on finalising the India-UK Free Trade Agreement (FTA) and strengthening maritime and economic ties with the Maldives.
• Objectives: To deepen bilateral trade and defence partnerships, enhance regional cooperation under India’s Neighbourhood First and MAHASAGAR Vision, and participate as Guest of Honour at Maldives’ Independence Day celebrations.

Important Terms Explained:

• India-UK Free Trade Agreement (FTA): A major trade pact under negotiation since 2021 aimed at eliminating tariffs on 99% of traded goods and improving market access for both Indian and British industries.
• MAHASAGAR Vision: An Indian foreign policy framework titled Mutual and Holistic Advancement for Security and Growth Across Regions, focusing on inclusive security and economic cooperation in the Indian Ocean Region.
• Technology Security Initiative (TSI): A bilateral cooperation plan between India and the UK focused on advanced tech sectors like AI, telecom, semiconductors, quantum computing, and biotechnology.

Tabular Summary:

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16. Where has the replica of the ancient Ashokan Pillar recently been erected in Sri Lanka?
A) Colombo
B) Anuradhapura
C) Kandy
D) Waskaduwa Sri Subhuthi Viharaya
E) Dambulla
Answer: D) Waskaduwa Sri Subhuthi Viharaya

Event and Location:

• Event: Replica of Ashokan Pillar erected in Sri Lanka
• Location: Waskaduwa Sri Subhuthi Viharaya, Kalutara District, Sri Lanka
• Date: 21 July 2025 (inauguration); 22 July 2025 (announcement)

Mandates and Objectives:

• Mandates:
  • A replica of the Ashokan Pillar was installed at Waskaduwa Sri Subhuthi Viharaya, with the participation of Indian and Sri Lankan dignitaries.
• Objectives:
  • To honour Emperor Ashoka’s contribution to spreading Buddhism in Sri Lanka and to strengthen India-Sri Lanka cultural and spiritual ties.

Important Terms Explained:

• Ashokan Pillar:
  • Monolithic stone columns erected by Emperor Ashoka during his reign in the 3rd century BCE, inscribed with edicts promoting Buddhist values and governance.
• Buddha Sasana:
  • The monastic and doctrinal system of Buddhism, comprising teachings of the Buddha, practices, and ordained Sangha (monks and nuns).
• International Buddhist Confederation (IBC):
  • A global Buddhist organization promoting interfaith dialogue and Buddhist heritage, headquartered in India under the Ministry of Culture.
• Kyabje Ling Rinpoche:
  • A spiritual lineage in Tibetan Buddhism; the 6th Ling Rinpoche was the tutor of the 14th Dalai Lama, and the current 7th incarnation is an influential teacher based in India.

Tabular Summary:

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17. Why did the U.S. announce its withdrawal from UNESCO in July 2025?
A) Due to budgetary constraints
B) Over disputes regarding climate policy
C) Due to UNESCO’s inclusion of Palestine as a member
D) Over UNESCO’s refusal to recognize U.S. heritage sites
E) Due to lack of educational collaboration
Answer: C) Due to UNESCO’s inclusion of Palestine as a member

Event and Location:

• Event: U.S. announces withdrawal from UNESCO
• Location: Paris (UNESCO HQ); applicable globally, especially U.S.
• Date: 22 July 2025

Mandates and Objectives:

• Mandates:
  • The Trump administration announced the withdrawal of the U.S. from UNESCO over concerns regarding divisive agendas and Palestine’s membership.
• Objectives:
  • To align U.S. international participation with its “America First” foreign policy and protest what it sees as anti-Israel bias and globalist ideologies promoted by UNESCO.

Important Terms Explained:

• UNESCO (United Nations Educational, Scientific and Cultural Organization):
  • A UN agency promoting global collaboration in education, science, culture, and managing the World Heritage sites list.
• World Heritage Sites:
  • Cultural or natural locations of global significance designated by UNESCO for protection and conservation. There are 1,200+ sites, including 26 in the U.S.
• Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs):
  • A set of 17 global goals adopted by the UN in 2015, aimed at addressing global challenges such as poverty, inequality, climate change, and education by 2030.

Tabular Summary:

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Schemes – Daily Current Affairs July 23

18. Under the current PM-eBus Sewa scheme model, who receives the subsidy for electric bus procurement?
A) State Transport Corporations
B) Private Operators via PPP Model
C) Central Transport Authority
D) Local Municipal Corporations
E) State Governments Directly
Answer: B) Private Operators via PPP Model

Event and Location:

• Event: Demand for direct central subsidy under PM-eBus Sewa and inauguration of an automated driving test track
• Location: Karnataka (specifically Mangaluru and Kamblapadavu in Dakshina Kannada district)
• Date: 14 July 2025

Mandates and Objectives:

• Mandates: Under the PM-eBus Sewa scheme, 100 electric buses have been sanctioned to Mangaluru. Karnataka minister urged the Centre to give direct subsidies to state transport corporations instead of routing them through private operators. An automated driving test track was also inaugurated in Kamblapadavu.
• Objectives: To enhance clean mobility in urban areas by deploying e-buses under PPP models and to improve transparency and efficiency in driving license testing using automated systems.

Important Terms Explained:

• PM-eBus Sewa Scheme: A central government initiative aiming to deploy 10,000 electric buses across 100 cities through a Public-Private Partnership (PPP) model. The Centre provides up to 50% viability gap funding.
• PPP Model (Public-Private Partnership): A collaboration where private entities operate and maintain services while the government provides partial funding or support, reducing the direct financial burden on public agencies.
• Automated Driving Test Track: A facility developed using sensors and computerized systems to test driving skills, replacing manual inspections to ensure transparency, reduce corruption, and improve accuracy.

Tabular Summary:

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19. As of July 2025, how much has the Centre disbursed under MGNREGS for FY 2025–26?
A) ₹30,000 crore
B) ₹50,000 crore
C) ₹44,323 crore
D) ₹86,000 crore
E) ₹42,750 crore
Answer: C) ₹44,323 crore

Event and Location:

• Event: Centre disburses ₹44,323 crore under MGNREGS in FY 2025–26
• Location: India (National rural coverage)
• Date: 22 July 2025

Mandates and Objectives:

• Mandates: The Ministry of Rural Development, led by Minister Shivraj Singh Chouhan, has disbursed over ₹44,323 crore under the Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Scheme (MGNREGS) as of July 17, 2025.
• Objectives: To provide employment guarantee in rural areas, clear pending liabilities, and support wage and material payments, ensuring continued livelihood support in rural India.

Important Terms Explained:

• MGNREGS (Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Scheme): A flagship social security scheme that guarantees 100 days of wage employment per year to rural households willing to do unskilled manual work.
• Budget Estimate (BE): The initial estimate of allocation made in the Union Budget. For MGNREGS, the BE for FY 2025–26 remains the highest-ever at ₹86,000 crore.
• Material Liability: Refers to the component of MGNREGS funds used for materials, tools, and equipment, not just wages. The government has released 50% of pending material liabilities from the previous year.

Tabular Summary:

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National Affairs – Daily Current Affairs July 23

20. When is the entire Mumbai-Ahmedabad High Speed Rail (MAHSR) project expected to be completed as per Railway Minister Ashwini Vaishnaw?
A) March 2028
B) June 2029
C) December 2029
D) October 2030
E) January 2030
Answer: C) December 2029

Event and Location:

• Event: Completion timeline announcement for Mumbai-Ahmedabad Bullet Train project
• Location: Gujarat, Maharashtra, and Dadra & Nagar Haveli
• Date: 23 July 2025

Mandates and Objectives:

• Mandates: Construction and execution of the Mumbai-Ahmedabad High Speed Rail (MAHSR) corridor is underway, with all civil contracts awarded and significant construction progress made.
• Objectives: To introduce high-speed rail connectivity in India, reduce travel time, promote advanced transportation infrastructure, and strengthen Indo-Japan cooperation in technology and funding.

Important Terms Explained:

• Mumbai-Ahmedabad High Speed Rail (MAHSR): India’s first bullet train corridor covering 508 km with a top speed of 320 km/h, connecting Mumbai and Ahmedabad with 12 stations.
• Japan International Cooperation Agency (JICA): A Japanese government agency providing 81% of the funding for the MAHSR through a soft loan arrangement.
• National High Speed Rail Corporation Limited (NHSRCL): The implementing agency responsible for the development and execution of high-speed rail corridors in India.

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21. What is a key provision in the new Karnataka Devadasi Bill regarding children born to Devadasis?
A) Mandatory adoption by the State
B) Declaring them ineligible for inheritance
C) Recognising them as legitimate children with inheritance rights
D) Requiring them to live in government-run shelters
E) Issuing special identity cards for them
Answer: C) Recognising them as legitimate children with inheritance rights

Event and Location:

• Event: Karnataka proposes new Devadasi law including paternity and legitimacy provisions
• Location: Karnataka, India
• Date: 23 July 2025

Mandates and Objectives:

• Mandates: The Karnataka government is drafting a new law to replace the 1982 Devadasi Act, which will legally classify the BCCI as a National Sports Federation (NSF), bring paternity DNA provisions, and remove the requirement to declare the father’s name on official documents for children of Devadasis.
• Objectives: To protect the rights of Devadasi women and their children, offer inheritance and identity rights, provide rehabilitation, and ensure legal and social dignity.

Important Terms Explained:

• Devadasi System: An old practice where young girls were dedicated to temples and often forced into exploitative conditions. The system was legally abolished, but remnants still exist in some areas.
• Karnataka Devadasi (Prevention, Prohibition, Relief and Rehabilitation) Bill, 2025: A proposed law to replace the 1982 Act, aimed at strengthening legal protection for Devadasi women and children, introducing paternity testing rights, and formalising their legitimacy and inheritance under Hindu law.
• Legitimate Child: Under the new bill, a child born to a Devadasi will be considered legitimate, with full rights to inheritance and succession under the Hindu Personal Law.

Tabular Summary:

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22. Which traditional South Indian offering is being considered for a Geographical Indication (GI) tag in Kancheepuram?
A) Venn Pongal
B) Koil Idli
C) Kancheepuram Dosa
D) Dhadhyonam
E) Ksheera Annam
Answer: B) Koil Idli

Event and Location:

• Event: Koil Idli of Kancheepuram progresses toward GI tag status
• Location: Kancheepuram, Tamil Nadu
• Date: 23 July 2025

Mandates and Objectives:

• Mandates: The Tamil Nadu Food Processing and Agri Export Promotion Corporation (TNAPEx), with support from Madurai Agribusiness Incubation Forum, has submitted a GI tag application for Koil Idli to recognize its culinary uniqueness and cultural heritage.
• Objectives: To provide legal protection, promote traditional food preservation, and enhance the cultural recognition of temple-based culinary practices rooted in centuries-old rituals.

Important Terms Explained:

• Geographical Indication (GI) Tag: A form of intellectual property protection that indicates a product originates from a specific place and possesses qualities or a reputation due to that origin.
• Koil Idli: A sacred and traditional steamed rice dish offered at Sri Varadharaja Perumal Temple, known for its coarse texture, rich ingredients, and spiritual significance.
• Mandharai Leaves: Dried leaves used in steaming Koil Idlis that infuse a distinctive aroma, central to the dish’s identity and ritual value.

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23. Which religious observance prompted Kochi Metro to extend its operational hours in July 2025?
A) Makaravilakku
B) Karkidaka Vavu
C) Vishu
D) Onam
E) Thrissur Pooram
Answer: B) Karkidaka Vavu

Event and Location:

• Event: Special Kochi Metro services for Karkidaka Vavu pilgrims
• Location: Kochi, Kerala (Aluva – Periyar River banks)
• Date: 23–24 July 2025

Mandates and Objectives:

• Mandates: Kochi Metro Rail Limited (KMRL) announced special metro services on Wednesday and Thursday to support pilgrims visiting Aluva Siva Temple for Karkidaka Vavu rituals.
• Objectives: To provide safe, early, and late-night transport access for devotees performing bali tharpanam, reduce traffic congestion, and support religious and cultural participation.

Important Terms Explained:

• Karkidaka Vavu: A sacred day observed in Kerala during the Malayalam month of Karkidakam, where bali tharpanam (ancestral offerings) are made on riverbanks, especially at Aluva Manappuram.
• Bali Tharpanam: A Hindu ritual performed to pay homage to deceased ancestors, typically conducted by riverside with large public gatherings.
• Kochi Metro Rail Limited (KMRL): A joint venture between the Government of India and the Government of Kerala, responsible for operating and managing Kochi Metro services.

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24. What is the new target for student enrollment in the Bharat Scouts and Guides in Mandya district, as per DC Kumara?
A) 5,000
B) 6,000
C) 7,000
D) 8,000
E) 10,000
Answer: D) 8,000

Event and Location:

• Event: Mandya DC calls for expansion of Bharat Scouts and Guides programs
• Location: Mandya district, Karnataka
• Date: 22 July 2025

Mandates and Objectives:

• Mandates: Mandya Deputy Commissioner Kumara urged Bharat Scouts and Guides to raise enrollment from 5,000 to 8,000 students, emphasizing increased outreach and funding across taluk levels.
• Objectives: To promote discipline, patriotism, and social responsibility among students through scouting activities, and to make civic engagement part of holistic youth development.

Important Terms Explained:

• Bharat Scouts and Guides: A national youth movement in India aimed at fostering character development, service, and responsible citizenship among children through structured community involvement.
• Taluk and Gram Panchayat: Local self-government administrative units in India; taluks are sub-districts, while gram panchayats are village-level councils, vital for rural mobilisation and outreach.
• MLC (Member of Legislative Council): A member of the upper house in a bicameral state legislature. KT Srikantegowda has been appointed chief patron of the Mandya District Scouts and Guides.

Tabular Summary:

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25. Which newly inaugurated structure is India’s second longest cable-stayed bridge?
A) Bandra-Worli Sea Link
B) Signature Bridge, Delhi
C) Sigandur Bridge, Karnataka
D) Bogibeel Bridge, Assam
E) Vembanad Bridge, Kerala
Answer: C) Sigandur Bridge, Karnataka

Event and Location:

• Event: Inauguration of India’s second longest cable-stayed bridge
• Location: Sagar taluk, Shivamogga district, Karnataka
• Date: 16 July 2025

Mandates and Objectives:

• Mandates:
  • The Sigandur cable-stayed bridge, stretching 2.44 km and built across the Sharavathi backwaters, was inaugurated by Union Minister Nitin Gadkari to improve road connectivity between Sagara and Sigandur.
• Objectives:
  • The bridge aims to enhance travel convenience for devotees visiting the Chowdeshwari Temple, reconnect villages cut off after the Linganamakki dam construction, and boost regional infrastructure development.

Important Terms Explained:

• Cable-Stayed Bridge:
  • A type of bridge where the deck is supported by cables directly connected to one or more towers, offering structural efficiency and aesthetic appeal.
• Sharavathi Backwaters:
  • The reservoir created by the Linganamakki dam on the Sharavathi River, located in Karnataka, known for its hydroelectric significance.
• Chowdeshwari Temple:
  • A famous Hindu pilgrimage site in Sigandur, Karnataka, drawing devotees from across the region.
• Linganamakki Dam:
  • A major hydroelectric project built in the 1960s on the Sharavathi River, whose reservoir had caused loss of road connectivity in nearby regions.

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