Daily Current Affairs January 27

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January 27 | Daily Current Affairs 2024

Important Days – Daily Current Affairs January 27

1. What is the primary aim of observing the International Day of Clean Energy on 26th January?
A) To commemorate technological advancements in fossil fuels
B) To raise awareness about the benefits of using nuclear energy
C) To promote a just and inclusive transition to clean energy
D) To celebrate advancements in coal and gas industries
E) To recognize the role of traditional energy sources in development
Answer: C) To promote a just and inclusive transition to clean energy

Event and Location:

• Event: International Day of Clean Energy 2025
• Date: 26 January
• Location: Observed globally

Mandates and Objectives:

• Promote clean energy awareness:
  • Highlights the importance of transitioning to clean energy for socio-economic and environmental benefits.
• Support Sustainable Development Goal 7 (SDG7):
  • Aims to provide affordable, reliable, sustainable, and modern energy for all by 2030.
• Address global challenges:
  • Tackles issues such as energy poverty, climate change, and socio-economic inequalities.
• Encourage renewable energy adoption:
  • Advocates the use of solar, wind, hydro, and geothermal energy to reduce dependence on fossil fuels.

Important Terms Explained:

• Clean Energy:
  • Renewable energy sources that produce minimal greenhouse gas emissions, contributing to sustainability and reduced climate impacts.
• Sustainable Development Goal 7 (SDG7):
  • A United Nations initiative targeting universal access to sustainable and affordable energy.
• IRENA (International Renewable Energy Agency):
  • Established to assist nations in adopting clean energy through data, policy recommendations, and cooperation platforms.

Tabular Summary:

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2. What is the theme for the 2025 International Day of Commemoration in Memory of the Victims of the Holocaust?
A) Justice, Equality, and Freedom
B) Holocaust Education and Awareness
C) Holocaust Remembrance and Education for Dignity and Human Rights
D) 80 Years of Peace and Unity
E) Remembrance and Resilience
Answer: C) Holocaust Remembrance and Education for Dignity and Human Rights

Event and Location:

• Event: International Day of Commemoration in Memory of the Victims of the Holocaust 2025
• Date: 27 January 2025
• Location: United Nations Headquarters, New York, and UN offices worldwide

Mandates and Objectives:

• Promote Holocaust remembrance:
  • Observed annually to honor the memory of Holocaust victims and survivors.
• Theme for 2025:
  • “Holocaust Remembrance and Education for Dignity and Human Rights” focuses on remembering the Holocaust to promote human rights and dignity.
• Mark the 80th anniversary of Auschwitz liberation:
  • Commemorates the liberation of Auschwitz-Birkenau, the most infamous Nazi concentration camp, on 27 January 1945.
• Preserve human dignity:
  • Holocaust remembrance serves as a safeguard against the repetition of atrocities and upholds dignity by honoring the victims.

Important Aspects of the 2025 Observance:

• UN Holocaust Memorial Ceremony:
  • Hosted at UN Headquarters, New York, on 27 January 2025.
  • Features survivor testimonies, prominent speakers, and reflections on the Holocaust.
  • Hosted by Ms. Melissa Fleming, Under-Secretary-General for Global Communications.
• Educational initiatives:
  • Promote awareness about the Holocaust to combat anti-Semitism, hate crimes, and denial.
• Significance for future generations:
  • Holocaust education fosters empathy, critical thinking, and a commitment to justice.

Tabular Summary:

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3. What is the theme for International Customs Day 2025?
A) Enhancing Global Trade Connectivity
B) Customs Delivering on its Commitment to Efficiency, Security, and Prosperity
C) Promoting Awareness of Customs Laws and Regulations
D) Building Bridges Across Borders
E) Strengthening International Trade Policies
Answer: B) Customs Delivering on its Commitment to Efficiency, Security, and Prosperity

Event and Location:

• Event: International Customs Day 2025
• Date: January 26, 2025
• Location: Observed globally

Mandates and Objectives:

• Theme for 2025:
  • “Customs Delivering on its Commitment to Efficiency, Security, and Prosperity.”
  • This theme underscores the critical role customs play in enhancing trade efficiency, maintaining security, and contributing to global economic growth.
• Historical Background:
  • The day commemorates the inaugural session of the Customs Cooperation Council (CCC) held on January 26, 1953, in Brussels, Belgium.
  • The CCC, now known as the World Customs Organisation (WCO), was established in 1952 to streamline customs operations worldwide.
• Role of WCO:
  • Facilitates international trade by developing global customs standards.
  • Ensures supply chain security and combats illegal trade.
  • Provides guidance, capacity building, and leadership to customs administrations.

Significance of International Customs Day:

• Honoring Customs Officials:
  • Recognizes the dedication of customs authorities in maintaining secure and efficient trade systems.
• Raising Public Awareness:
  • Promotes understanding of customs laws to ensure smooth travel and trade processes.
• Strengthening Global Connectivity:
  • Highlights the role of customs in fostering economic relationships and global cooperation.

Tabular Summary:

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4. When was the National Geographic Society founded?
A) January 1, 1888
B) January 27, 1888
C) December 25, 1888
D) February 14, 1888
E) March 15, 1888
Answer: B) January 27, 1888

Event and Location:

• Event: National Geographic Day 2025
• Date: January 27, 2025
• Location: Observed globally

Mandates and Objectives:

• Purpose of National Geographic Day:
  • Celebrates the establishment of the National Geographic Society and its contributions to science, exploration, education, and conservation.
• Founding of the National Geographic Society:
  • Founded on January 27, 1888, in Washington, D.C., USA, by 33 visionaries.
  • Established to promote the study of geography, science, and humanity while fostering exploration and discovery.
• Role of National Geographic Society:
  • Education: Provides resources like maps, books, and digital tools to promote geographic literacy.
  • Science and Research: Supports groundbreaking projects on biodiversity, archaeology, and more.
  • Conservation: Advocates for environmental protection and sustainable practices.
  • Storytelling: Creates iconic photography, documentaries, and films to inspire action.
  • Exploration: Funds expeditions and research projects, uncovering natural and cultural wonders.

Key Contributions of National Geographic Society:

• Groundbreaking Research: Supported projects on endangered species and ancient ruins.
• Global Influence: Published in multiple languages, reaching millions worldwide.
• Conservation Efforts: Addresses climate change, habitat destruction, and biodiversity loss.
• Cultural Documentation: Preserves and shares stories of diverse human cultures.

Tabular Summary:

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Sports – Daily Current Affairs January 27

5. Who was named the ICC Women’s ODI Cricketer of the Year for 2024?
A) Alyssa Healy
B) Smriti Mandhana
C) Meg Lanning
D) Harmanpreet Kaur
E) Sophie Devine
Answer: B) Smriti Mandhana

Event and Location:

• Event: ICC Women’s ODI Cricketer of the Year 2024 – Smriti Mandhana
• Date: January 27, 2025
• Location: ICC Announcement

Mandates and Objectives:

• Mandhana’s Performance in 2024:
  • Runs Scored: 747 runs in 13 matches, leading all WODI players.
  • Batting Average: 57.86, demonstrating remarkable consistency.
  • Strike Rate: 95.15, showcasing her aggressive approach.
  • Centuries: Scored 4 centuries, a new record in women’s ODIs.
  • Boundaries: 95 fours and 6 sixes, reflecting her ability to dominate bowling attacks.
• Key Performances:
  • South Africa Series: Back-to-back centuries leading India to a 3-0 win.
  • New Zealand Series Decider: Match-defining century in October 2024.
  • Australia Match: A valiant 105 against the world’s top-ranked team in Perth.
• Memorable Achievement:
  • Topped the ICC Women’s Championship runs tally with 1358 runs in 24 matches.

Event: ICC Men’s ODI Cricketer of the Year 2024 – Azmatullah Omarzai

• Omarzai’s Performance in 2024:
  • Batting: Scored 417 runs in 14 matches, averaging 52.12.
  • Bowling: Took 17 wickets with a bowling average of 20.47.
  • Key Contributions: Played match-winning innings and delivered crucial breakthroughs.
• Notable Matches:
  • 149 vs Sri Lanka.*
  • 86 vs South Africa, securing a series victory.*
  • 70 and 4/37 vs Bangladesh, ensuring a match-winning performance.*

Tabular Summary:

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6. Who won the 2025 Australian Open Men’s Singles title?
A) Rafael Nadal
B) Alexander Zverev
C) Daniil Medvedev
D) Novak Djokovic
E) Jannik Sinner
Answer: E) Jannik Sinner

Event and Location:

• Event: Sinner Secures Back-to-Back Aussie Open Championships
• Date: January 27, 2025
• Location: Melbourne Park, Melbourne, Australia

Mandates and Objectives:

• Winner’s Achievement:
  • Jannik Sinner defended his Australian Open title with a straight-sets victory over Alexander Zverev.
• Final Match Highlights:
  • Scoreline: 6-3, 7-6(4), 6-3.
  • Key Moments:
    • Sinner broke Zverev’s serve in the first set’s eighth game.
    • The second set saw a tight tiebreaker dominated by Sinner.
    • Dominant groundstrokes and precise serving secured the match.
• Historic Feat:
  • Sinner became the youngest male since Jim Courier (1992-1993) to win consecutive Australian Open titles.
  • He is also the first man since Rafael Nadal (2005-2006) to defend his first Grand Slam title at the same event the following year.

Player Background:

• Jannik Sinner (Italy, World No. 1):
  • Age: 23.
  • Current Form: On a 20-match winning streak.
  • Recent Grand Slam Wins: 2024 Australian Open, 2024 US Open.
• Alexander Zverev (Germany, World No. 2):
  • Age: 27.
  • Grand Slam Final Record: 0-3.
  • Previous Finals: Two five-set losses, including this match against Sinner.

Historic Context:

• Significance of Match:
  • First Australian Open final between World No. 1 and No. 2 since Djokovic vs. Nadal (2019).
  • Sinner’s dominance in straight sets showcased his growing stature in men’s tennis.

Tabular Summary:

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7. Who won the 9th Johor International Open Chess Tournament in Malaysia?
A) Nguyen Van Huy
B) VS Raahul
C) Li Bo
D) Iniyan Panneerselvam
E) Nayaka Budhidharma
Answer: D) Iniyan Panneerselvam

Event and Location:

• Event: Indian Grandmaster Iniyan Wins Malaysian Title
• Date: January 25, 2025
• Location: Malaysia

Mandates and Objectives:

• Tournament Details:
  • Name: 9th Johor International Open Chess Tournament.
  • Participants: 84 players from 8 countries, including 24 titled players (GMs, IMs, FMs).
• Iniyan’s Performance:
  • Scored 8.5 points in 9 rounds, finishing 1.5 points ahead of his nearest rival.
  • Defeated 4 International Masters and 1 Grandmaster during the tournament.
  • Secured the title after the penultimate round with a win over Indonesian IM Nayaka Budhidharma.
  • Concluded with a victory against Vietnamese GM Nguyen Van Huy in the final round.
• Achievements:
  • Gained 15 rating points from the tournament.
  • Earlier won the Chennai Open Chess Tournament in January 2025.
• Other Top Finishers:
  • Second Place: Indian IM VS Raahul.
  • Third Place: Chinese IM Li Bo.

Tabular Summary:

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Banking and Finance – Daily Current Affairs January 27

8. Which bank received the highest penalty from the RBI for non-compliance in January 2025?
A) Canara Bank
B) Bank of India
C) Jammu & Kashmir Bank
D) State Bank of India
E) Punjab National Bank
Answer: C) Jammu & Kashmir Bank

Event and Location:

• Event: RBI Fines Canara Bank, Bank of India, and Jammu & Kashmir Bank
• Date: January 27, 2025
• Location: India

Mandates and Objectives:

• Reason for Fines:
  • The penalties were imposed for non-compliance with various regulatory guidelines such as KYC norms, data submissions, and statutory lending practices.
• Penalty Amounts:
  • Jammu & Kashmir Bank: ₹3.31 crore for lapses in KYC, financial inclusion, and loan regulations.
  • Canara Bank: ₹1.63 crore for non-compliance in priority sector lending and interest rate regulations.
  • Bank of India: ₹1 crore for violations under the Banking Regulation Act, 1949.
• RBI’s Objective:
  • To ensure compliance with regulations that maintain integrity, financial inclusion, and customer due diligence within the banking sector.

Tabular Summary:

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9. Which Indian bank became the first to implement Clari5’s National Cybercrime Reporting Portal (NCRP) Integration Solution?
A) State Bank of India
B) Punjab National Bank
C) ICICI Bank
D) HDFC Bank
E) Bank of Baroda
Answer: B) Punjab National Bank

Event and Location:

• Event: PNB Pioneers Real-Time Cybercrime Response with Clari5 Integration
• Date: January 27, 2025
• Location: India

Mandates and Objectives:

• PNB’s Achievement:
  • Punjab National Bank (PNB) is the first Indian bank to integrate Clari5’s National Cybercrime Reporting Portal (NCRP) Solution, developed with the Indian Cyber Crime Coordination Centre (I4C).
• Purpose of Integration:
  • To process cybercrime complaints and prevent fraud in real time across various banking channels, including:
    • Internet Banking
    • Mobile Banking
    • ATMs
    • UPI
    • NEFT/RTGS
• Technological Features:
  • Automated Lien Marking and Account Freezes: Instantly places holds on suspicious accounts to prevent fraud.
  • Real-Time Complaint Processing: Ensures swift action against cyber threats across all banking channels.
  • Customizable Whitelisting: Protects legitimate customer transactions while enhancing fraud detection.

Impact and Future Prospects:

• Industry Impact:
  • Sets a new benchmark in the Indian banking sector, encouraging other banks to adopt similar technologies for enhanced cybersecurity.
• Long-Term Goals:
  • Strengthens India’s banking ecosystem against evolving cyber threats, ensuring customer trust and financial safety.

Tabular Summary:

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10. What was the percentage increase in complaints received under the RBI Integrated Ombudsman Scheme in 2024?
A) 25.5%
B) 28.9%
C) 30.1%
D) 32.81%
E) 35.2%
Answer: D) 32.81%

Event and Location:

• Event: 32.81% Surge in Complaints to RBI Ombudsman
• Date: January 27, 2025
• Location: India

Mandates and Objectives:

• Complaint Surge Data:
  • Complaints to the RBI’s Integrated Ombudsman Scheme increased by 32.81% in 2024, reaching 9.34 lakh complaints.
• Root Causes of Complaints:
  • Transaction Errors: Delays or mistakes in banking transactions were frequently reported.
  • Service Delays: Inadequate response times from banks caused dissatisfaction.
  • Poor Customer Support: Lack of satisfactory grievance handling mechanisms.

Significance of the Issue:

• Consumer Protection Concern:
  • The rise in complaints highlights persistent issues in banking services despite the RBI’s regulatory efforts.
  • Digital banking services emerged as a significant source of customer grievances.
• Call for Improvements:
  • Banks need to enhance internal grievance redressal systems to meet customer expectations.
  • The trend signals an increasing demand for better accountability and efficiency in the financial sector.

Tabular Summary:

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11. What is the primary objective of RMBS Development Company Limited (RDCL)?
A) To manage and regulate housing loans directly for borrowers
B) To facilitate the growth and development of the Residential Mortgage-Backed Securitisation (RMBS) market
C) To provide subsidies for housing projects in rural areas
D) To supervise primary lending institutions offering housing loans
E) To offer direct housing loans to low-income households
Answer: B) To facilitate the growth and development of the Residential Mortgage-Backed Securitisation (RMBS) market

Event and Location:

• Event: RDCL Receives Certificate of Registration from RBI
• Date: January 23, 2025
• Location: Mumbai

Mandates and Objectives:

• Establishment of RDCL:
  • Set up by the National Housing Bank (NHB), a statutory body under the Government of India.
  • RDCL has received the Certificate of Registration (CoR) from the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) to commence operations.
• Purpose:
  • Development of RMBS Market:
    • RDCL aims to act as a market intermediary to facilitate the growth and development of the Residential Mortgage-Backed Securitisation (RMBS) market in India.
  • Investment Avenues:
    • Provides opportunities for long-term institutional investors such as insurance companies, pension funds, and provident funds to invest in the RMBS market.
  • Key Activities of RDCL:
    • Invest in RMBS issuances.
    • Provide second loss credit enhancements.
    • Support liquidity in the housing finance market.
    • Promote standardized processes and documentation.

Significance of RMBS Market:

• Funding Support:
  • A developed RMBS market complements traditional funding sources for primary lending institutions, ensuring better liquidity and credit availability.
• Housing Loan Growth:
  • Housing loans outstanding grew from ₹17.95 lakh crore (March 2019) to ₹33.19 lakh crore (March 2024), with a CAGR of 13.1%.
  • The RMBS market will further support this growing demand for housing finance.

Tabular Summary:

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12. What is the key improvement introduced by EPFO in the process of member profile updation?
A) Mandatory document upload for profile changes
B) Full employer verification for all cases
C) Self-approval for profile changes by members with validated UANs
D) Limiting the changes allowed in member profiles
E) Employer-only approval for all changes
Answer: C) Self-approval for profile changes by members with validated UANs

Event and Location:

• Event: EPFO Simplifies Online Member Profile Updation
• Date: January 19, 2025
• Location: India

Mandates and Objectives:

• Simplified Process:
  • Members whose Universal Account Numbers (UANs) are validated through Aadhaar can now directly update profile details, such as:
    • Name, date of birth, gender, nationality, marital status, spouse/parent details, and employment details (joining/leaving dates).
  • No document upload or employer verification is required for most cases.
• Impact on Pending Requests:
  • Around 3.9 lakh members with pending requests at various stages will benefit immediately.
  • Members can self-approve pending requests by deleting earlier submissions.
• Employer’s Role:
  • Required only for profiles with UANs issued before October 1, 2017, or for accounts with incomplete e-KYC.

Significance:

1. Reduction in Processing Time:
   • Eliminates the 28-day delay caused by employer verification.
   • In 45% of cases, changes can now be self-approved by members.
2. Grievance Reduction:
   • Nearly 27% of grievances relate to KYC/profile issues, and this change is expected to reduce such complaints significantly.
3. Operational Efficiency:
   • Simplifies workflows for employers, reducing their verification workload.
   • Enhances data consistency and minimizes risks of errors or fraud.
4. Ease of Living and Doing Business:
   • Promotes seamless service delivery for members.
   • Enhances the experience of employers and EPFO members alike.

Tabular Summary:

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Business and Economy – Daily Current Affairs January 27

13. How much did GAIL settle for in its $1.8 billion claim against SEFE for undelivered LNG?
A) $1.0 billion
B) $285 million
C) $1.5 billion
D) $500 million
E) $700 million
Answer: B) $285 million

Event and Location:

• Event: GAIL Settles $1.8 Billion Claim Against SEFE
• Date: January 15, 2025
• Location: Settlement agreement with SEFE Marketing & Trading Singapore Pte Ltd

Mandates and Objectives:

• Background of the Dispute:
  • GAIL (India) Ltd had a 20-year agreement signed in 2012 with Gazprom Marketing and Trading Singapore (GMTS), now SEFE, to buy 2.85 million tonnes per annum of LNG.
  • SEFE stopped delivering LNG from June 2022 following sanctions on Russia due to the Ukraine invasion.
  • GAIL initiated legal proceedings in December 2023 in the London Court of International Arbitration, seeking $1.817 billion in compensation.
• Settlement Agreement:
  • On January 15, 2025, GAIL agreed to a settlement of $285 million with SEFE, withdrawing its arbitration proceedings.
• Impact of Sanctions:
  • SEFE invoked force majeure, citing supply restrictions due to Russian sanctions and German mandates for European energy security.
  • This halted supplies, causing significant challenges for GAIL during a period of soaring LNG prices.

Significance of the Settlement:

• Resolution of Dispute:
  • Ends a protracted legal dispute between GAIL and SEFE.
  • Secures financial compensation for GAIL for the period of non-delivery.
• Lessons for Energy Contracts:
  • Highlights the risks of geopolitical factors in long-term energy agreements.
  • Emphasizes the importance of diversified sourcing and robust contract terms to mitigate supply disruptions.

Tabular Summary:

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14. What is the deadline for Tata Sons to list on stock exchanges as an upper-layer NBFC, unless exempted or deregistered?
A) September 2024
B) March 2025
C) September 2025
D) December 2025
E) June 2025
Answer: C) September 2025

Event and Location:

• Event: RBI Retains Tata Sons in Upper-Layer NBFC List for FY25
• Date: January 17, 2025
• Location: India

Mandates and Objectives:

• RBI’s Classification of Upper-Layer NBFCs:
  • Tata Sons was classified as an upper-layer NBFC in September 2022 under RBI’s 2021 guidelines.
  • Requirement: Upper-layer NBFCs must be listed within three years of classification unless they receive an exemption or deregistration.
• Current Status of Tata Sons:
  • Retained in the upper-layer NBFC list for FY25.
  • Application to voluntarily deregister is under examination by the RBI.
• Tata Sons’ Actions:
  • Surrendered its certificate of registration with RBI in 2024 to avoid mandatory listing.
  • Turned debt-free by repaying ₹20,000 crore liabilities as of June 2024.

RBI Regulations on NBFC Layers:

• Four Layers of NBFCs:
  • Base Layer: Small NBFCs with minimal regulatory scrutiny.
  • Middle Layer: Moderately large NBFCs.
  • Upper Layer: Large, systemically important NBFCs requiring stricter oversight.
  • Top Layer (if required): NBFCs with exceptional risks and complexity.
• Current Upper-Layer NBFCs:
  • Includes prominent companies like Tata Sons, LIC Housing Finance, and Shriram Finance.

Tabular Summary:

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15. What is the estimated cost of BPCL’s proposed oil refinery-cum-petrochemical complex in Andhra Pradesh?
A) ₹60,000 crore
B) ₹71,814 crore
C) ₹85,000 crore
D) ₹95,000 crore
E) ₹1,00,000 crore
Answer: D) ₹95,000 crore

Event and Location:

• Event: BPCL’s Andhra Oil Refinery Project
• Date: January 24, 2025
• Location: Andhra Pradesh, India

Mandates and Objectives:

• Project Overview:
  • Bharat Petroleum Corporation Ltd. (BPCL) plans to build a 9 million tonnes per year oil refinery-cum-petrochemical complex in Andhra Pradesh.
  • Estimated project cost: ₹95,000 crore, making it India’s costliest refinery project to date.
• Key Features:
  • Processing Capacity: 9 million tonnes annually, producing:
    • 3–3.5 million tonnes of fuels like petrol and diesel.
    • 3.8–4 million tonnes of petrochemical feedstock.
  • BPCL has already approved ₹6,100 crore for pre-project activities, including land acquisition, environmental studies, and feasibility reports.
• Land Requirements:
  • 6,000 acres of coastal land identified for the refinery.
  • The acquisition process is expected to take 6–9 months.
• Timeline:
  • The refinery is expected to be commissioned within 48 months of the final investment decision.

Significance of the Project:

• Fuel Demand Growth:
  • India’s oil demand is growing at 4–5% annually, requiring capacity expansion to meet future energy needs.
  • The new refinery will help India maintain self-sufficiency in fuel production until 2040.
• Economic Boost:
  • The project will support the region’s industrial growth and generate employment opportunities.
• Strategic Importance:
  • As India’s last planned greenfield refinery, the project reflects confidence in fuel demand despite a global shift toward cleaner energy alternatives.

Tabular Summary:

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16. What is the primary objective of the Diamond Imprest Authorization (DIA) Scheme introduced by the Department of Commerce?
A) To regulate the domestic diamond industry
B) To allow duty-free import of rough diamonds
C) To enhance global competitiveness and boost exports of cut and polished diamonds
D) To promote mining operations in India
E) To reduce diamond imports for industrial use
Answer: C) To enhance global competitiveness and boost exports of cut and polished diamonds

Event and Location:

• Event: Launch of the Diamond Imprest Authorization (DIA) Scheme
• Date: January 21, 2025
• Implementation: April 1, 2025

Mandates and Objectives:

• Purpose of the Scheme:
  • Enhance the global competitiveness of India’s diamond sector.
  • Facilitate duty-free import of Natural Cut and Polished Diamonds (less than ¼ carat or 25 cents).
  • Promote value addition and increase exports.
• Export Obligation:
  • Exporters must fulfill a 10% value addition obligation.
• Eligibility Criteria:
  • Exporters with Two Star Export House status or above.
  • Annual diamond exports of at least US $15 million.
• Alignment with Global Beneficiation Policies:
  • The scheme mirrors policies in diamond-mining nations like Botswana, Namibia, and Angola, where manufacturers are required to undertake local value addition.

Significance of the Scheme:

1. Global Leadership:
   • Reinforces India’s position as a global leader in the diamond value chain.
2. Support for MSMEs:
   • Provides a level playing field for small and medium diamond exporters.
3. Employment Generation:
   • Expected to generate jobs, especially for diamond assorters and craftsmen in semi-finished diamond processing.
4. Counter Industry Decline:
   • Aims to combat declining exports and job losses in the diamond sector.
5. Preventing Investment Flight:
   • Addresses concerns about Indian diamantaires relocating investments to diamond-mining countries.

Tabular Summary:

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Appointments – Daily Current Affairs January 27

17. Who has been appointed as India’s new Ambassador to Israel?
A) Sanjeev Kumar Singla
B) Vikram Misri
C) Jitender Pal Singh
D) Amir Khan Muttaqi
E) Piyush Shukla
Answer: C) Jitender Pal Singh

Event and Location:

• Event: Appointment of Jitender Pal Singh as India’s Ambassador to Israel
• Date: January 24, 2025
• Location: New Delhi

Mandates and Objectives:

• Strengthen India-Israel relations:
  Singh’s expertise will bolster strategic, technological, and bilateral cooperation.
• Manage post-conflict dynamics:
  • His appointment comes during Israel’s recovery phase post-ceasefire with Hamas.
• Engage with the Indian diaspora in Israel:
  • Over 32,000 Indian nationals reside in Israel, making this role critical.

Professional Background:

• IFS Officer of 2002 Batch:
  • Currently serving in the office of the External Affairs Minister.
• Key Diplomatic Roles:
  • Deputy High Commissioner to Pakistan (2014–2019): Managed relations with Pakistan.
  • Posting in Kabul (2008–2012): Served during major crises, including embassy terror attacks.
  • Taliban Engagement: Led interactions post-Ashraf Ghani’s government fall in 2021.

Context of the Appointment:

• Predecessor:
  • Succeeded Sanjeev Kumar Singla, who was appointed as Ambassador to France in 2024.
• Significance:
  • Singh’s experience in sensitive regions positions him to manage India-Israel strategic ties effectively.

Tabular Summary:

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Awards – Daily Current Affairs January 27

18. How many total individuals were conferred the Jeevan Raksha Padak Series of Awards in 2024?
A) 49
B) 23
C) 17
D) 09
E) 50
Answer: A) 49

Event and Location:

• Event: President Approves Jeevan Raksha Padak Series of Awards – 2024
• Date: January 25, 2025
• Location: New Delhi

Key Highlights:

1. Total Awardees:
   • The Jeevan Raksha Padak Series of Awards was conferred on 49 individuals, including 6 posthumous recipients.
2. Categories of the Award:
   • Sarvottam Jeevan Raksha Padak: Awarded to 17 recipients (including 5 posthumous).
   • Uttam Jeevan Raksha Padak: Awarded to 9 recipients (including 1 posthumous).
   • Jeevan Raksha Padak: Awarded to 23 recipients.
3. Purpose of the Awards:
   • Recognizes meritorious acts of human nature in saving lives.
   • Open to individuals from all walks of life.
   • Can be awarded posthumously.
4. Award Details:
   • Each award includes:
     • A medal.
     • A certificate signed by the Union Home Minister.
     • A monetary allowance.
   • Presented by the respective Union Ministries/Organizations/State Governments.
5. Notable Recipients by Category:
   • Sarvottam Jeevan Raksha Padak:
     • Shri Pintu Kumar Sahni (Posthumous), Bihar.
     • Shri Dawa Tshering Lepcha (Posthumous), Sikkim.
     • Shri Munna Qureshi, NHIDCL, Ministry of Road Transport and Highways.
   • Uttam Jeevan Raksha Padak:
     • Shri Ritik Chauhan, Himachal Pradesh.
     • Havildar Leki Passang, Ministry of Defence.
     • Shri Manmohan Singh, National Disaster Response Force.
   • Jeevan Raksha Padak:
     • Shri Nelli Srinivasa Rao, Andhra Pradesh.
     • Shri Vikas Yadav, Bihar.
     • Master Elambok Dkhar, Meghalaya.

Tabular Summary:

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International Affairs – Daily Current Affairs January 27

19. What is ranked as the most severe long-term global risk in the World Economic Forum’s Global Risks Report 2025?
A) Cybersecurity threats
B) Biodiversity loss
C) Extreme weather events
D) Pollution
E) Involuntary migration
Answer: C) Extreme weather events

Event and Location:

• Event: Extreme Weather Tops Global Risks for the Next Decade – WEF Global Risks Report 2025
• Date: January 16, 2025
• Location: Davos-Klosters, Switzerland

Mandates and Objectives:

• Key Findings:
  • Extreme weather events rank as the most severe long-term global risk for the second consecutive year (2025-2035).
  • These events also rank as the second most severe short-term risk (2025-2027).
  • The report highlights the increasing frequency and cost of extreme weather events, with inflation-adjusted expenses rising by 77% over five decades.
• Climate Change’s Role:
  • Climate change is the primary driver behind extreme weather events, which include wildfires, floods, hurricanes, and heatwaves.
  • In 2024, global temperatures reached record highs, exacerbating these risks further.
• Top Long-Term Risks (2025-2035):
  • Extreme weather events
  • Biodiversity loss and ecosystem collapse
  • Natural resource shortages
  • Pollution
  • Critical changes to Earth systems
• Top Short-Term Risks (2025-2027):
  • Extreme weather events rank among the top five risks in 28 countries, with 12 countries identifying it as one of their top three risks.

Impact of Extreme Weather Events:

• Economic Impact:
  • Devastating wildfires in Los Angeles are projected to become the costliest in US history, with potential losses exceeding $200 billion.
• Social Impact:
  • Involuntary migration ranks as the eighth most severe short-term risk, driven largely by climate-induced displacement.
• Environmental and Health Concerns:
  • Extreme weather contributes to biodiversity loss, weakens ecosystems, and increases pollution-related health issues such as cardiovascular diseases and respiratory problems.

Tabular Summary:

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National Affairs – Daily Current Affairs January 27

20. What is the name of the initiative launched to conserve Kashmir’s iconic chinar trees?
A) Tree Conservation Drive
B) Digital Tree Aadhar
C) Green Kashmir Project
D) Chinar Preservation Plan
E) Eco-Tagging Kashmir
Answer: B) Digital Tree Aadhar

Event and Location:

• Event: Geo-Tagging Saves Kashmir’s Iconic Chinar Trees
• Date: January 27, 2025
• Location: Jammu & Kashmir, India

Mandates and Objectives:

• Initiative Name: Digital Tree Aadhar
• Purpose:
  • To monitor, conserve, and manage the health of chinar trees in Kashmir.
  • Provide each tree with a unique ID for better documentation and preservation.
• Technology Used:
  • Geo-tagging with Geographic Information System (GIS).
  • QR codes and metal barcode cards for public engagement.
• Current Progress:
  • Over 28,560 chinar trees geo-tagged since the project started in 2021.
  • Approximately 10,000 trees equipped with metal barcode tags.

Historical and Cultural Importance of Chinars:

• Origins:
  • Introduced by Islamic preachers from Central Asia and Persia 400+ years ago.
• Mughal Legacy:
  • Extensively planted in Srinagar’s Mughal gardens like Nishat Bagh and Shalimar Garden.
• Cultural Symbolism:
  • Revered by Hindus and Muslims; forms a part of shrines like Hazratbal and temples like Kheer Bhawani.
• Bollywood Appeal:
  • Featured in many Bollywood films, representing Kashmir’s romance and nostalgia.

Conservation Challenges:

• Threats:
  • Urbanization and infrastructure projects like highway expansions.
  • Illegal felling, causing a significant decline from 40,000 chinars to current levels.
• Conservation Significance:
  • Chinars play a key role in carbon sequestration, providing habitats, and boosting tourism.

Tabular Summary:

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21. What is the purpose of the newly launched ‘Samman Sanjeevani’ app in Haryana?
A) To promote education for girls in rural areas
B) To provide real-time tracking of healthcare services for pregnant women
C) To ensure timely delivery of services under the ‘Mahila Evam Kishori Samman Yojana’
D) To support digital literacy among women and girls
E) To distribute scholarships to girl students in Haryana
Answer: C) To ensure timely delivery of services under the ‘Mahila Evam Kishori Samman Yojana’

Event and Location:

• Event: Launch of ‘Samman Sanjeevani’ App
• Date: January 24, 2025 (National Girl Child Day)
• Location: Haryana, India

Mandates and Objectives:

• Purpose of the ‘Samman Sanjeevani’ App:
  • Enhances the efficiency of the ‘Mahila Evam Kishori Samman Yojana’.
  • Tracks facilities and ensures timely distribution of sanitary napkins to BPL women and girls aged 10 to 45.
  • Collects data on beneficiaries and updates monthly benefits.
• Services Under the Yojana:
  • Distribution of sanitary napkins through Anganwadi centers and schools.
  • Focus on empowering BPL women and improving hygiene standards.
• Celebrating ‘Beti Bachao Beti Padhao’ 10th Anniversary:
  • Activities: Rallies, cultural events, recognition ceremonies, and awareness campaigns.
  • Participants: Schoolgirls, successful women, community groups, and stakeholders promoting women’s empowerment.

Minister’s Address:

• Haryana Cabinet Minister Shruti Choudhry:
  • Highlighted the significance of the app in improving service delivery.
  • Emphasized the state government’s commitment to empowering women and raising awareness about daughters’ importance.

Tabular Summary:

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22. Which two Indian cities were the first to join the Global Wetland Cities Network under the Ramsar Convention?
A) Jaipur and Varanasi
B) Udaipur and Indore
C) Hyderabad and Bengaluru
D) Mumbai and Chennai
E) Kochi and Trivandrum
Answer: B) Udaipur and Indore

Event and Location:

• Event: Indore and Udaipur Join Global Wetland Cities Network
• Date: January 27, 2025
• Location: India

Mandates and Objectives:

• Recognition of Indian Cities:
  • Indore and Udaipur are the first Indian cities to receive Wetland City Accreditation under the Ramsar Convention.
• Key Wetlands in These Cities:
  • Indore: Sirpur Lake, a Ramsar site and prominent bird sanctuary.
  • Udaipur: Surrounded by five major wetlands, including Pichola, Fateh Sagar, and Swaroop Sagar, which regulate the city’s microclimate and support biodiversity.
• Purpose of Wetland City Accreditation:
  • Recognizes urban areas that have taken exceptional measures to conserve wetlands.
  • Promotes the wise use of urban and peri-urban wetlands for ecological, social, and economic benefits.

Significance of Wetlands:

• Environmental Benefits:
  • Biodiversity conservation.
  • Flood regulation and climate change mitigation.
• Economic Benefits:
  • Livelihood opportunities and eco-tourism.
• Cultural and Recreational Values:
  • Wetlands enhance the cultural identity of cities and provide recreational spaces.

About Wetland City Accreditation (WCA):

• Established by: Ramsar Convention, approved during COP12 (2015).
• Global Reach: 43 cities from 17 countries, with Indore and Udaipur now joining.
• Criteria for Accreditation: Must meet six international standards outlined by Ramsar Convention.

Tabular Summary:

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23. What is the new reserve price of FCI rice for states and ethanol producers under the Open Market Sale Scheme (OMSS)?
A) ₹2,800 per quintal
B) ₹2,550 per quintal
C) ₹2,400 per quintal
D) ₹2,250 per quintal
E) ₹3,000 per quintal
Answer: D) ₹2,250 per quintal

Event and Location:

• Event: Centre Slashes FCI Rice Price by ₹550 per Quintal
• Date: January 17, 2025
• Location: India

Mandates and Objectives:

• Revised Pricing:
  • The Centre reduced the reserve price of FCI rice under the Open Market Sale Scheme (OMSS) by ₹550 per quintal, bringing it down from ₹2,800 to ₹2,250 per quintal for state governments and ethanol producers.
• Eligibility for Revised Pricing:
  • State Governments and State-Run Corporations: Eligible to purchase up to 12 lakh tonnes.
  • Ethanol Distilleries: Can purchase up to 24 lakh tonnes at the revised rate.
• Pricing for Others:
  • Private Traders: Continue to pay ₹2,800 per quintal.
  • Central Cooperatives (e.g., NAFED, NCCF, Kendriya Bhandar): Pay ₹2,400 per quintal.

Significance of the Policy:

• Supporting Food Security and Ethanol Production:
  • Ensures affordable rice availability for state welfare schemes and ethanol production.
  • Aligns with government efforts to promote renewable energy and reduce dependence on fossil fuels.
• Balancing Market Dynamics:
  • Aims to boost rice availability and stabilize prices in the open market.
  • Addresses lower rice sales compared to wheat under OMSS.

Tabular Summary:

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24. Which milestone was highlighted during the 15th National Voters’ Day celebration in 2025?
A) Completion of 50 years of the Election Commission of India
B) Introduction of electronic voting for all voters
C) Achievement of 100 crore registered electors
D) Adoption of online voting across states
E) Initiation of postal ballots for all age groups
Answer: C) Achievement of 100 crore registered electors

Event and Location:

• Event: 15th National Voters’ Day Celebration
• Date: January 25, 2025
• Location: New Delhi

Mandates and Objectives:

• Key Highlights:
  • The President of India, Shrimati Droupadi Murmu, graced the national event.
  • The milestone of 100 crore registered electors was celebrated, showcasing the strength of India’s democracy.
  • The President praised increased women’s participation in elections as a sign of societal progress.
• Awards and Recognition:
  • Best Electoral Practices Awards were conferred on 22 recipients for their contributions to election management and inclusivity.
  • Best-performing state awards were given to Jammu & Kashmir, Jharkhand, and Maharashtra for their excellence during the 2024 Lok Sabha Elections.
• Publications and Series Launched:
  • Release of two ECI publications:
    • “India Votes 2024: A Saga of Democracy” (Coffee Table Book).
    • “Belief in the Ballot: Human Stories Shaping India’s 2024 Elections.”
  • Unveiling of the promo for “India Decides”, a docu-drama series by Warner Bros Discovery on the history of Indian elections.
• Exhibitions and Engagement:
  • An immersive multimedia exhibition displayed key aspects of the 2024 Lok Sabha Elections.
  • Five newly registered voters were felicitated and presented with their EPICs (Electors Photo Identity Cards).

Significance:

• The event reinforced the Election Commission of India’s 75 years of service, highlighting its role in conducting 18 Lok Sabha elections and over 400 State Assembly elections.
• It emphasized India’s commitment to inclusive democracy through voter education and awareness campaigns.

Tabular Summary:

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25. What is the main objective of the Internet Governance Internship and Capacity Building Scheme launched by NIXI?
A) To promote stable jobs in the digital sector
B) To provide hands-on training in cyber security operations
C) To develop expertise and awareness in global internet governance
D) To expand the adoption of IPv4 and IPv6 in India
E) To train software engineers for web development
Answer: C) To develop expertise and awareness in global internet governance

Event and Location:

• Event: Launch of Internet Governance Internship and Capacity Building Scheme
• Date: January 18, 2025
• Launched By: Shri S. Krishnan, Secretary, Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY) and Chairman, NIXI

Mandates and Objectives:

1. Primary Goal:
   • Build awareness and develop expertise in internet governance (IG) among Indian citizens.
   • Equip participants to engage effectively in global internet governance processes with organizations like:
     • Internet Corporation for Assigned Names and Numbers (ICANN)
     • Internet Society (ISOC)
     • Institute of Electrical and Electronics Engineers (IEEE)
     • Internet Engineering Task Force (IETF)
2. Scope:
   • Nurture a pool of Indian talent to address emerging internet governance challenges.
   • Prepare participants to contribute to the global digital policy landscape.

Internship Program Features:

• Program Duration:
  • Offers two tracks:
    • Six-month program
    • Three-month program
• Benefits for Interns:
  • Fixed stipend of ₹20,000 per month.
  • Mentorship by experts from international organizations like ICANN and APNIC.
  • Support for conducting mandatory outreach programs.
• Focus Areas:
  • Building leadership in internet governance.
  • Fostering a fair, inclusive, and accessible internet ecosystem.

Significance of the Program:

• Skill Development:
  • Builds practical understanding of internet governance and digital transformation.
• Global Impact:
  • Positions Indian citizens as contributors to global internet governance processes.
• Empowering Youth:
  • Provides global exposure and mentorship for aspiring leaders passionate about digital policy.
• Inclusivity and Accessibility:
  • Aims for a fair and inclusive digital world, focusing on meaningful contributions to the internet ecosystem.

Tabular Summary:

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Over All Review

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