Daily Current Affairs December 30

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December 30 | Daily Current Affairs 2025

Sports – Daily Current Affairs December 30

1. Who won the women’s singles title at the 87th Senior National Badminton Championships held in Vijayawada?
A) Tanvi Patri
B) Ashwini Bhat K
C) Surya Charishma Tamiri
D) Shikha Gautam
E) Shruti Mishra
Answer: C) Surya Charishma Tamiri

Event and Location:

• Event: Surya Charishma Tamiri wins women’s singles title at 87th Senior National Badminton Championships
• Location: Vijayawada, India
• Date: December 30, 2025 (finals concluded)

Mandates and Objectives:

• Mandates: The 87th Senior National Badminton Championships were conducted to crown national champions across singles and doubles events in Indian badminton.
• Objectives: The tournament aims to identify top-performing shuttlers, promote emerging talent, and aid in national team selection by evaluating performance at a high-level domestic competition.

Important Terms Explained:

• Senior National Badminton Championships:
  • India’s premier domestic badminton tournament organized annually, featuring top national players competing for titles across different categories.
• Women’s Singles:
  • A badminton category where female athletes compete individually; Surya Charishma Tamiri won this title in the 2025 edition.
• Mixed Doubles:
  • A doubles event consisting of male and female pairs; won by Sathwik Reddy K and Radhika Sharma in the 87th edition.

Tabular Summary:

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2. Which cricketer became the first-ever to take 8 wickets in a men’s T20 International match?
A) Syazrul Idrus
B) Ali Dawood
C) Sonam Yeshey
D) Rashid Khan
E) Mujeeb Ur Rahman
Answer: C) Sonam Yeshey

Event and Location:

• Event: Sonam Yeshey takes record 8-wicket haul in a men’s T20I match
• Location: Gelephu, Bhutan (Bhutan vs Myanmar, 3rd T20I)
• Date: December 29, 2025

Mandates and Objectives:

• Mandates: Sonam Yeshey, a Bhutanese cricketer, delivered a historic bowling performance by taking 8 wickets for 7 runs in a T20I match against Myanmar.
• Objectives: To showcase world-class bowling excellence from an associate nation, set a new benchmark in T20I cricket, and reflect the growing competitiveness of emerging cricket teams on the global stage.

Important Terms Explained:

• Men’s T20 International (T20I):
  • A 20-over-per-side international cricket match played between two countries, recognized by the International Cricket Council (ICC).
• Economy Rate:
  • The average number of runs conceded by a bowler per over. In this case, Sonam Yeshey’s economy rate was 1.80, indicating extreme bowling efficiency.
• Associate Nation:
  • A non-full member of the ICC with limited international exposure and funding. Bhutan is classified as an associate member, yet continues to rise in performance levels.

Tabular Summary:

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3. Who became the second Indian woman to score 10,000 runs in international cricket?
A) Harmanpreet Kaur
B) Deepti Sharma
C) Mithali Raj
D) Smriti Mandhana
E) Shafali Verma
Answer: D) Smriti Mandhana

Event and Location:

• Event: Smriti Mandhana becomes second Indian woman to complete 10,000 international runs
• Location: Greenfield International Stadium, Thiruvananthapuram, India
• Date: December 28, 2025

Mandates and Objectives:

• Mandates: Indian cricketer Smriti Mandhana crossed the 10,000-run mark in international cricket, becoming the second Indian and fourth woman globally to do so.
• Objectives: The milestone highlights Mandhana’s long-standing consistency and contributions across all formats, and elevates India’s standing in the history of women’s cricket.

Important Terms Explained:

• 10,000 International Runs:
  • Refers to the combined total runs scored by a player across Tests, ODIs, and T20 Internationals. Only a few elite women cricketers have achieved this milestone.
• Women’s T20 International (WT20I):
  • A recognized international format of 20-over matches between women’s national cricket teams. Smriti Mandhana has played over 150 WT20Is.
• Greenfield International Stadium:
  • Located in Thiruvananthapuram, Kerala, it is a multi-purpose stadium that regularly hosts international cricket matches.

Tabular Summary:

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4. Which two Indian chess players won bronze medals at the 2025 FIDE World Rapid Chess Championships?
A) R Praggnanandhaa and D Gukesh
B) Koneru Humpy and Arjun Erigaisi
C) Nihal Sarin and Divya Deshmukh
D) B Savitha Shri and R Vaishali
E) Vishwanathan Anand and Arjun Erigaisi
Answer: B) Koneru Humpy and Arjun Erigaisi

Event and Location:

• Event: Koneru Humpy and Arjun Erigaisi win bronze at FIDE World Rapid Chess Championships
• Location: Doha, Qatar
• Date: December 30, 2025 (event concluded)

Mandates and Objectives:

• Mandates: Indian grandmasters Koneru Humpy and Arjun Erigaisi secured bronze medals in the Women’s and Open sections respectively at the FIDE World Rapid Chess Championships 2025.
• Objectives: To recognize India’s strong and growing presence in elite international chess and celebrate individual excellence on the global stage.

Important Terms Explained:

• FIDE World Rapid Chess Championships:
  • An international chess tournament held by FIDE, where elite players compete using rapid time controls (usually 15 minutes + 10 seconds increment per move).
• Buchholz Tie-Break System:
  • A tie-breaking method used in chess tournaments, which ranks players based on the cumulative strength of their opponents to determine final standings in case of equal points.
• Grandmaster (GM):
  • The highest title awarded by FIDE in chess, based on achieving certain norms and ratings at recognized tournaments.

Tabular Summary:

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Obituary – Daily Current Affairs December 30

5. Who was Khaleda Zia, whose recent death marked the end of a significant era in Bangladesh’s political history?
A) First female President of Bangladesh
B) Founder of Awami League
C) First female Prime Minister of Bangladesh
D) Chief of Bangladesh Election Commission
E) Current Prime Minister of Bangladesh
Answer: C) First female Prime Minister of Bangladesh

Event and Location:

• Event: Death of Khaleda Zia, the first female Prime Minister of Bangladesh
• Location: Bangladesh
• Date: December 30, 2025

Mandates and Objectives:

• Mandates: Khaleda Zia served two terms as the Prime Minister of Bangladesh and led the Bangladesh Nationalist Party during key political transitions.
• Objectives: Her leadership aimed to restore parliamentary democracy, oppose military governance, and strengthen Bangladesh’s multiparty political system.

Important Terms Explained:

• Bangladesh Nationalist Party (BNP): A major political party in Bangladesh, founded by Ziaur Rahman, advocating center-right policies and led for decades by Khaleda Zia.
• Parliamentary Democracy: A system of governance where the executive branch is elected and accountable to the parliament, restored in Bangladesh in 1991 under Khaleda Zia’s leadership.
• Caretaker Government: A temporary, often military-supported government established to oversee neutral elections during periods of political crisis, which ruled Bangladesh between 2006 and 2008.

Tabular Summary:

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Ranking – Daily Current Affairs December 30

6. Despite ranking third in rare earth reserves globally, what is India’s share in global rare earth production?
A) 10%
B) 5%
C) 2%
D) Less than 1%
E) Around 7%
Answer: D) Less than 1%

Event and Location:

• Event: India ranks third in rare earth reserves but contributes <1% to global production
• Location: India (global comparative context)
• Date: December 30, 2025 (report date)

Mandates and Objectives:

• Mandates: India holds around 6.9 million tonnes of rare earth oxide (REO) reserves, ranking third globally, but contributes less than 1% to global production due to processing and regulatory limitations.
• Objectives: To highlight the gap between India’s rare earth potential and its actual production, with a view to strengthening strategic mineral supply chains for clean-tech and defence applications.

Important Terms Explained:

• Rare Earth Elements (REEs):
  • A group of 17 critical minerals used in key industries such as clean energy (EVs, wind turbines), electronics, missile systems, and permanent magnets. Despite being relatively abundant, they are difficult and costly to mine and refine.
• Monazite:
  • A rare earth mineral found in coastal sands that contains thorium, a radioactive element, making its extraction complex and heavily regulated.
• Indian Rare Earths Limited (IREL):
  • A public sector enterprise under the Department of Atomic Energy, primarily responsible for the mining and production of rare earths in India.

Tabular Summary:

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Banking and Finance – Daily Current Affairs December 30

7. How much liquidity did the RBI inject through its Open Market Operation (OMO) purchase auction in December 2025?
A) ₹25,000 crore
B) ₹62,302 crore
C) ₹75,000 crore
D) ₹50,000 crore
E) ₹10,000 crore
Answer: D) ₹50,000 crore

Event and Location:

• Event: RBI conducts ₹50,000 crore OMO to ease liquidity stress
• Location: Pan-India (RBI operations; impact on the banking system)
• Date: December 28, 2025 (operation conducted)

Mandates and Objectives:

• Mandates: The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) conducted a ₹50,000 crore Open Market Operation (OMO) purchase to inject durable liquidity into the banking system amid a recorded ₹62,302 crore liquidity deficit.
• Objectives: To support credit flow, maintain short-term rate stability, and ensure adequate liquidity during tight financial conditions due to tax outflows, currency demand, and muted government spending.

Important Terms Explained:

• Open Market Operations (OMO):
  • A monetary policy tool used by the RBI to manage liquidity in the system by buying or selling government securities. OMO purchases inject liquidity, while OMO sales absorb liquidity.
• Liquidity Deficit:
  • Occurs when banks’ demand for funds exceeds the available liquidity in the system. Persistent deficits can push up interest rates and restrict credit availability.
• Variable Rate Repo (VRR):
  • A short-term borrowing tool where banks borrow funds from RBI at variable interest rates, helping align overnight rates with the repo rate.
• Forex Swap (USD/INR Buy-Sell):
  • A liquidity management tool where RBI buys USD and sells INR, or vice versa, to manage rupee liquidity and foreign exchange volatility.

Tabular Summary:

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8. As per RBI data, what was India’s gross NPA ratio for scheduled commercial banks as of September 30, 2025?
A) 3.8%
B) 2.1%
C) 1.7%
D) 2.9%
E) 4.5%
Answer: B) 2.1%

Event and Location:

• Event: Gross NPAs drop to 2.1%, a multi-decade low in Indian banking sector
• Location: India (as per RBI report findings)
• Date: September 30, 2025 (data reference), December 30, 2025 (report published)

Mandates and Objectives:

• Mandates: The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) reported that the Gross Non-Performing Asset (GNPA) ratio of scheduled commercial banks fell to 2.1%, the lowest in decades, while Net NPA dropped to 0.5% by March 2025.
• Objectives: To highlight improved banking asset quality due to recoveries, better loan performance, and capital buffers, thus enhancing financial stability and credit discipline in the banking system.

Important Terms Explained:

• Gross NPA (GNPA):
  • The total value of loans that remain unpaid (overdue for more than 90 days), expressed as a percentage of total advances. It is a key indicator of asset quality in the banking sector.
• Net NPA:
  • Net of provisions (bad loan reserves) made by banks. It indicates the actual loss a bank would bear after accounting for recoverable amounts.
• Slippage Ratio:
  • The proportion of standard assets turning into NPAs during a given year. A falling slippage ratio indicates reduced stress and improved asset quality.
• Provisioning:
  • Banks set aside funds to cover potential loan losses. Higher provisioning improves balance sheet resilience and reduces net NPAs.

Tabular Summary:

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Business and Economy – Daily Current Affairs December 30

9. What was India’s Index of Industrial Production (IIP) growth rate in November 2025, marking a 25-month high?
A) 5.2%
B) 4.8%
C) 6.7%
D) 7.5%
E) 8.1%
Answer: C) 6.7%

Event and Location:

• Event: IIP growth rises to 25-month high of 6.7%
• Location: India
• Date: November 2025 (data released on December 30, 2025)

Mandates and Objectives:

• Mandates: India’s Index of Industrial Production (IIP) recorded a 6.7% growth in November 2025, led by manufacturing and capital goods sectors.
• Objectives: The aim is to measure and reflect the performance and momentum of key industrial sectors, signalling economic recovery and increased investment activity.

Important Terms Explained:

• Index of Industrial Production (IIP):
  • A macroeconomic indicator that measures the short-term changes in the volume of production of a basket of industrial products in sectors such as manufacturing, mining, and electricity.
• Capital Goods:
  • These are physical assets used in the production of other goods and services. Growth in this sector indicates rising investment and infrastructure activity.
• Manufacturing Sector:
  • A key component of IIP, it includes industries involved in the transformation of raw materials into finished goods and significantly contributes to overall industrial output.

Tabular Summary:

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10. What was India’s total defence production value in FY 2024–25, marking a record high?
A) ₹1.12 lakh crore
B) ₹1.28 lakh crore
C) ₹1.51 lakh crore
D) ₹1.35 lakh crore
E) ₹1.44 lakh crore
Answer: C) ₹1.51 lakh crore

Event and Location:

• Event: India achieves record defence production and export growth in 2025
• Location: Pan-India (defence corridors, DPSUs, and private sector facilities)
• Date: Year-end review as of December 30, 2025

Mandates and Objectives:

• Mandates: India’s defence sector recorded ₹1.51 lakh crore in production and ₹23,622 crore in exports in FY 2024–25, driven by Atmanirbhar Bharat initiatives, private sector growth, and robust defence reforms.
• Objectives: To boost self-reliance, promote indigenous manufacturing, reduce import dependency, and position India as a reliable global supplier of defence systems.

Important Terms Explained:

• Atmanirbharta (Self-Reliance) in Defence:
  • A national mission to reduce defence imports by strengthening indigenous manufacturing, innovation, and strategic autonomy in the defence sector.
• Defense Acquisition Procedure (DAP) 2020:
  • A procurement guideline that prioritizes Buy (Indian–IDDM) — Indigenously Designed, Developed and Manufactured — categories to boost local industry participation.
• Open General Export Licence (OGEL):
  • A simplified licensing system enabling Indian defence companies to export eligible products to pre-approved countries without individual approvals for every order.

Tabular Summary:

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11. What was India’s record foodgrain production in the financial year 2024–25?
A) 329.46 million tonnes
B) 357.73 million tonnes
C) 344.80 million tonnes
D) 310.60 million tonnes
E) 301.55 million tonnes
Answer: B) 357.73 million tonnes

Event and Location:

• Event: India achieves record agricultural performance and reforms in FY 2024–25
• Location: Pan-India (rural, agricultural, and allied sectors)
• Date: December 30, 2025 (year-end review)

Mandates and Objectives:

• Mandates: The agricultural sector in India recorded historic growth and structural reforms in 2025, marked by record foodgrain production, enhanced income support, credit access, and sustainability efforts.
• Objectives: To transform Indian agriculture from subsistence to productivity-driven, climate-resilient, and income-assured farming through MSP, direct transfers, infrastructure, market reforms, and diversified rural livelihoods.

Important Terms Explained:

• PM-Kisan Samman Nidhi:
  • A direct income support scheme under which ₹6,000 is transferred annually in three instalments to eligible farmers; over ₹3.90 lakh crore disbursed as of August 2025.
• Minimum Support Price (MSP):
  • A price assurance mechanism that ensures at least 50% return over the cost of production for crops; instrumental in stabilizing farm incomes.
• Pradhan Mantri Fasal Bima Yojana (PMFBY):
  • A crop insurance scheme providing financial protection to farmers from yield loss due to weather, pests, and disasters; ₹1.83 lakh crore paid in claims since 2016.
• Kisan Credit Card (KCC):
  • An institutional credit facility that provides short-term credit to farmers for cultivation and allied activities; crossed ₹10 lakh crore in 2025.
• e-NAM (National Agriculture Market):
  • A digital agri-market platform connecting mandis nationwide to improve price discovery and market access for farmers.
• PM-KUSUM:
  • A scheme to promote solar energy use in agriculture by subsidizing solar pumps and decentralised renewable energy generation on farmland.

Tabular Summary:

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Awards – Daily Current Affairs December 30

12. Who has become the first non-Israeli recipient of the Israel Prize for Peace in 2026?
A) Joe Biden
B) Benjamin Netanyahu
C) Vladimir Putin
D) Donald Trump
E) Emmanuel Macron
Answer: D) Donald Trump

Event and Location:

• Event: Donald Trump to receive Israel Prize for Peace in 2026
• Location: Israel (announced after talks in Florida, USA)
• Date: December 30, 2025

Mandates and Objectives:

• Mandates: Israel to confer its highest civilian honour, the Israel Prize for Peace, on Donald Trump
• Objectives: To honour Trump’s contributions to Israel’s security, Middle East peace efforts, and diplomatic achievements including the Gaza peace deal

Important Terms Explained:

• Israel Prize: The highest civilian award in Israel, traditionally awarded to Israeli citizens for excellence in academic, cultural, and social contributions
• Israel Prize for Peace: A newly introduced category under the Israel Prize, conferred for the first time in 2026
• Gaza Peace Deal: A diplomatic initiative during Trump’s tenure contributing to regional stability, recognized as a major factor in the award decision

Tabular Summary:

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Defence – Daily Current Affairs December 30

13. Where did DRDO successfully conduct the maiden flight test of the Pinaka Long Range Guided Rocket (LRGR-120) in December 2025?
A) Pokhran
B) Chandipur
C) Balasore
D) Sriharikota
E) Jaisalmer
Answer: B) Chandipur

Event and Location:

• Event: Successful maiden flight test of Pinaka Long Range Guided Rocket (LRGR-120)
• Location: Integrated Test Range, Chandipur, Odisha
• Date: December 29, 2025

Mandates and Objectives:

• Mandates: The Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO) conducted the maiden flight test of the Pinaka LRGR-120, a precision-guided rocket with a range of 120 km.
• Objectives: The objective was to validate the rocket’s precision, range, in-flight manoeuvrability, and compatibility with existing launch systems, thereby strengthening India’s indigenous rocket artillery systems and combat readiness.

Important Terms Explained:

• Pinaka Rocket System:
  • An indigenously developed multi-barrel rocket launcher (MBRL) system used by the Indian Army, designed for delivering rapid and high-volume firepower against enemy targets.
• Pinaka LRGR-120:
  • A Long Range Guided Rocket variant of the Pinaka system with a maximum range of 120 km, high accuracy, and in-flight manoeuvrability. It is compatible with in-service launchers, offering battlefield flexibility.
• DRDO (Defence Research and Development Organisation):
  • India’s premier defence R&D agency responsible for the development of advanced military technologies, including missile systems, radar, and combat equipment.

Tabular Summary:

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14. Who chairs the Defense Acquisition Council that approved defense proposals worth ₹79,000 crore in 2025?
A) Chief of Defence Staff
B) National Security Advisor
C) Defence Secretary
D) Prime Minister of India
E) Defence Minister of India
Answer: E) Defence Minister of India

Event and Location:

• Event: Defense Acquisition Council approves ₹79,000 crore worth of defense procurement proposals
• Location: New Delhi, India
• Date: December 30, 2025

Mandates and Objectives:

• Mandates: The Defense Acquisition Council (DAC), chaired by the Defence Minister, cleared capital acquisition proposals worth ₹79,000 crore to upgrade combat readiness of the Indian Army, Navy, and Air Force with advanced technologies.
• Objectives: To strengthen strike capabilities, surveillance, air defence, communication, and training infrastructure, ensuring India’s armed forces are equipped to address both traditional and emerging threats.

Important Terms Explained:

• Defense Acquisition Council (DAC):
  • The apex decision-making body in the Ministry of Defence for capital acquisitions; it grants ‘Acceptance of Necessity (AoN)’, the first step in the defense procurement process.
• Acceptance of Necessity (AoN):
  • A formal approval by the DAC that allows the procurement process to begin. Without AoN, no acquisition can move forward.
• Pinaka Multiple Launch Rocket System:
  • An indigenous artillery rocket system, used by the Indian Army for long-range precision strikes. The approval includes extended-range guided rockets.

Tabular Summary:

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15. What is the destination of INSV Kaundinya’s maiden overseas voyage that began from Porbandar in December 2025?
A) Dubai
B) Colombo
C) Karachi
D) Muscat
E) Abu Dhabi
Answer: D) Muscat

Event and Location:

• Event: INSV Kaundinya begins maiden overseas voyage to Oman
• Location: From Porbandar, Gujarat to Muscat, Oman
• Date: December 29, 2025

Mandates and Objectives:

• Mandates: The INSV Kaundinya, an indigenously built traditional stitched sailing vessel, embarked on its first overseas expedition from India to Oman, retracing ancient maritime trade routes.
• Objectives: To revive India’s ancient shipbuilding heritage, celebrate maritime cultural diplomacy, and strengthen India–Oman ties by showcasing shared oceanic traditions and civilisational connections.

Important Terms Explained:

• INSV (Indian Naval Sailing Vessel):
  • Ships operated by the Indian Navy for training and heritage missions. These include vessels like Tarini, Mhadei, and now Kaundinya, used for expeditions promoting seafaring traditions.
• Stitched Shipbuilding:
  • An ancient Indian maritime craft where planks are sewn together using coir ropes or natural fibres, without nails or welding. This technique provided flexibility and resilience during long sea voyages.
• Maritime Diplomacy:
  • A form of soft power where naval or civilian maritime missions are used to strengthen international relations, often through symbolic voyages, port visits, and cultural outreach.

Tabular Summary:

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National Affairs – Daily Current Affairs December 30

16. According to the Supreme Court, the right to a passport is protected under which Article of the Indian Constitution?
A) Article 14
B) Article 19
C) Article 32
D) Article 21
E) Article 226
Answer: D) Article 21

Event and Location:

• Event: Supreme Court rules that the right to a passport is part of personal liberty under Article 21
• Location: Supreme Court of India, New Delhi
• Date: December 30, 2025 (judgment reported)

Mandates and Objectives:

• Mandates: In a ruling delivered by a bench of Justices Vikram Nath and A.G. Masih, the Supreme Court of India held that the right to possess a passport is part of personal liberty under Article 21, and criminal proceedings do not automatically bar its issuance or renewal.
• Objectives: To uphold constitutional protections ensuring that administrative authorities do not override judicial permissions and to reaffirm that liberty can only be restricted through lawful, proportionate means.

Important Terms Explained:

• Article 21 (Right to Life and Personal Liberty):
  • A fundamental right that protects life and personal freedoms. It includes the right to travel, dignity, and pursue one’s livelihood, and cannot be curtailed arbitrarily.
• Passports Act – Section 6(2)(f):
  • Provides grounds on which passport issuance can be refused, including pending criminal proceedings. However, the Supreme Court clarified that this is not an absolute bar if courts have permitted passport use.
• UAPA (Unlawful Activities Prevention Act):
  • An Indian law aimed at combating terrorism and unlawful activities, under which bail and travel restrictions are stricter, but the Court stressed that liberty must be protected even under such laws, if due judicial process is followed.

Tabular Summary:

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17. Which bird sanctuary in Uttar Pradesh was recently declared an Eco-Sensitive Zone by the Union government?
A) Nawabganj Bird Sanctuary
B) Parvati-Arga Bird Sanctuary
C) Sur Sarovar Bird Sanctuary
D) Sandi Bird Sanctuary
E) Okhla Bird Sanctuary
Answer: B) Parvati-Arga Bird Sanctuary

Event and Location:

• Event: Parvati-Arga Bird Sanctuary declared an Eco-Sensitive Zone (ESZ)
• Location: Uttar Pradesh, India
• Date: December 30, 2025 (notification announced)

Mandates and Objectives:

• Mandates: The Union Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change declared the Parvati-Arga Bird Sanctuary an Eco-Sensitive Zone (ESZ) to provide a regulated buffer for ecological protection.
• Objectives: To conserve the sanctuary’s wetland ecosystem, protect migratory bird habitats, prevent ecological degradation, and promote responsible ecotourism and sustainable livelihoods.

Important Terms Explained:

• Eco-Sensitive Zone (ESZ):
  • Areas notified around protected areas, national parks, and wildlife sanctuaries where development and industrial activities are regulated to prevent ecological damage and ensure sustainable conservation.
• Wetland Ecosystem:
  • A type of ecosystem where land meets water, such as marshes and swamps. Wetlands support rich biodiversity, aid in water purification, groundwater recharge, and act as critical habitats for migratory and resident birds.
• Ecotourism:
  • A form of sustainable tourism that involves visiting natural areas with the aim of conservation, supporting local communities, and providing environmental education to tourists.

Tabular Summary:

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18. Why did the Supreme Court of India stay its earlier ruling on the Aravalli Hills in December 2025?
A) Mining was banned across India
B) The Aravalli Hills were wrongly declared a national park
C) The definition of the Aravalli Hills was found to be ambiguous
D) Environmental NGOs opposed the verdict
E) State governments refused to comply
Answer: C) The definition of the Aravalli Hills was found to be ambiguous

Event and Location:

• Event: Supreme Court stays earlier ruling on Aravalli Hills and orders new expert review
• Location: Aravalli Hills region (spanning Haryana, Rajasthan, Gujarat, Delhi)
• Date: December 29, 2025

Mandates and Objectives:

• Mandates: The Supreme Court of India stayed its previous ruling regarding the Aravalli Hills, citing confusion in the scientific definition of the range and concerns over ecological consequences of potential mining activities. It directed the formation of a new independent expert committee to reassess the issue.
• Objectives: To ensure clarity in the identification of Aravalli hills, prevent irreversible environmental damage, and apply the precautionary principle in environmental governance through independent and science-based reassessment.

Important Terms Explained:

• Aravalli Hills:
  • A prehistoric mountain range running across western India, primarily in Rajasthan, Haryana, and parts of Gujarat and Delhi. The Aravallis are ecologically vital, serving as a climate regulator, groundwater recharge zone, and biodiversity hotspot.
• Precautionary Principle:
  • A key concept in environmental law, suggesting that lack of full scientific certainty should not delay preventive environmental action if significant harm is possible. Applied when environmental or human health risks are uncertain but potentially serious.
• Independent Expert Committee:
  • A panel made up of non-bureaucratic scientific experts, often tasked by courts or governments to provide impartial, domain-specific analysis on complex issues such as ecological impact, scientific definitions, and policy implications.

Tabular Summary:

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Over All Review

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