Daily Current Affairs August 04

Dear Champions, as you all know that a lot of competitive exams have been notified consequently. Candidates have to prepare themselves according to the level of competition and expectation of the Recruitment board. Regarding that one of the most important topic is Daily Current Affairs August 04. Current Affairs in the form of contemporary events of national & international play a crucial role in almost every competitive exams like Banking, Insurance, SSC, UPSC, TNPSC, Railway etc.

Current affairs are the most dynamic yet scoring among all sections and need to be prepared from the right source. Here, we cafunsta team, providing Daily GK Updates, Current Affairs Questions, and Monthly current affairs pdf.

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August 04 | Daily Current Affairs 2025

Sports – Daily Current Affairs August 04

1. Who won the 2025 Hungarian Grand Prix after a close battle with teammate Oscar Piastri?
A) Charles Leclerc
B) George Russell
C) Max Verstappen
D) Lando Norris
E) Fernando Alonso
Answer: D) Lando Norris

Event and Location:

• Event: Lando Norris wins the 2025 Hungarian Grand Prix
• Location: Hungaroring, Budapest, Hungary
• Date: August 3, 2025

Mandates and Objectives:

• Mandates:
  • The Hungarian GP 2025 witnessed Lando Norris clinching a dramatic win after fending off Oscar Piastri in a final-lap showdown, securing McLaren’s 200th Formula 1 victory.
• Objectives:
  • To narrow the Drivers’ Championship gap, solidify McLaren’s dominance in mid-season, and build momentum for the second half of the Formula 1 calendar.

Important Terms Explained:

• One-Stop Strategy: A race plan involving only one pit stop for tyre changes, often riskier but time-saving when managed well—used effectively by Norris.
• Undercut: A race strategy where a driver pits earlier to gain time on fresher tyres and attempts to overtake a rival once the latter makes their pit stop.
• Hungaroring: A narrow, twisty F1 circuit in Budapest, known for limited overtaking opportunities and high tire management importance.
• Drivers’ Championship: The overall season-long title in Formula 1, awarded to the driver with the most points across all races.

Tabular Summary:

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2. Who won the inaugural Chess Esports World Cup held in Riyadh in 2025?
A) Hikaru Nakamura
B) Alireza Firouzja
C) Magnus Carlsen
D) Arjun Erigaisi
E) Ian Nepomniachtchi
Answer: C) Magnus Carlsen

Event and Location:

• Event: Magnus Carlsen wins the first-ever Chess Esports World Cup
• Location: Riyadh, Saudi Arabia
• Date: August 1, 2025

Mandates and Objectives:

• Mandates: The Esports World Cup 2025 introduced chess as an official event for the first time, with 16 players competing in a group and knockout format across rapid games with 10-minute time controls.
• Objectives: To expand chess into the esports domain, attract younger audiences, boost global chess viewership, and integrate traditional sports into modern digital competition formats.

Important Terms Explained:

• Chess Esports World Cup: A global competitive tournament held as part of the Esports World Cup 2025, featuring chess for the first time with a $1.5 million prize pool and rapid 10+0 format.
• Team Liquid: A major international esports organization represented by Magnus Carlsen in the tournament.
• GSL-style Double Elimination: A tournament format where players must lose twice before being eliminated, ensuring fairer progression to the knockout stage.

Tabular Summary:

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3. Which team won the World Championship of Legends (WCL) 2025 title under AB de Villiers’ heroic century performance?
A) India Champions
B) Australia Champions
C) Pakistan Champions
D) South Africa Champions
E) England Champions
Answer: D) South Africa Champions

Event and Location:

• Event: South Africa Champions win World Championship of Legends (WCL) 2025
• Location: Edgbaston, Birmingham, United Kingdom
• Date: August 4, 2025

Mandates and Objectives:

• Mandates: The WCL 2025 Final concluded with South Africa Champions defeating Pakistan Champions by 9 wickets, with AB de Villiers scoring a century to seal the win.
• Objectives: To crown the champion of the second edition of the World Championship of Legends, a T20 tournament featuring retired cricketing legends, and promote global cricket fan engagement through legacy competitions.

Important Terms Explained:

• World Championship of Legends (WCL): A T20-format cricket tournament featuring former international players (legends) representing their nations in competitive matches, launched to celebrate cricketing legacies.
• AB de Villiers: A retired South African international cricketer known for his 360-degree strokeplay and innovation; in WCL 2025, he scored a century in the final while playing through injury.
• Edgbaston: A major international cricket stadium in Birmingham, UK, known for hosting high-profile matches including Tests, ODIs, and T20s.

Tabular Summary:

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Ranking – Daily Current Affairs August 04

4. Which global rank has India achieved in fish production as per the latest announcement in 2025?
A) First
B) Second
C) Third
D) Fourth
E) Fifth
Answer: B) Second

Event and Location:

• Event: India achieves second global rank in fish production
• Location: Kolkata, West Bengal (National and global relevance)
• Date: August 4, 2025

Mandates and Objectives:

• Mandates:
  • The Union Ministry of Fisheries, Animal Husbandry & Dairying has announced that India ranks second globally in fish production, with a 103% growth recorded between 2013–14 and 2024–25.
• Objectives:
  • The initiative aims to promote fisheries as a tool for rural development, economic empowerment, and nutritional security, while strengthening infrastructure through schemes like PMMSY and KCC to ensure sustainable aquaculture under Atmanirbhar Bharat.

Important Terms Explained:

• Pradhan Mantri Matsya Sampada Yojana (PMMSY): A flagship scheme launched to promote sustainable development of the fisheries sector by improving infrastructure, value chain, production, and livelihoods.
• Kisan Credit Card (KCC): A government-backed credit scheme that provides short-term loans to farmers, including fish farmers, to meet working capital needs for aquaculture and related activities.
• Atmanirbhar Bharat: A national initiative launched to make India self-reliant in key sectors, including fisheries, through domestic production, skill development, and technology adoption.

Tabular Summary:

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5. Which airport ranks as the largest in India by area as of 2025?
A) Indira Gandhi International Airport
B) Kempegowda International Airport
C) Chhatrapati Shivaji International Airport
D) Rajiv Gandhi International Airport
E) Netaji Subhash Chandra Bose International Airport
Answer: D) Rajiv Gandhi International Airport

Event and Location:

• Event: Release of the 2025 list of India’s largest airports by area
• Location: Nationwide (India)
• Date: July 27, 2025

Mandates and Objectives:

• Mandates: The Airports Authority of India has published the ranking of India’s largest airports by area in 2025, highlighting the spatial expansion of aviation infrastructure.
• Objectives: The aim is to showcase the geographic and operational capacity of Indian airports as part of the country’s growth as the third-largest domestic aviation market globally, and to guide future policy and planning for infrastructure.

Top 10 Largest Airports in India by Area (2025)

Important Terms Explained:

• Rajiv Gandhi International Airport (RGIA): Located in Hyderabad, this is India’s largest airport by area in 2025, spanning 5,500 acres and featuring one of Asia’s longest runways.
• Indira Gandhi International Airport (IGI): Located in Delhi, it is one of the busiest airports in India, ranked second-largest by area at 5,106 acres.
• Airport Authority of India (AAI): The national body responsible for creating, upgrading, maintaining, and managing civil aviation infrastructure in India.

Tabular Summary:

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Banking and Finance – Daily Current Affairs August 04

6. What record did UPI set in July 2025?
A) Highest monthly bank credit growth
B) Highest number of card transactions
C) Highest-ever UPI transaction volume and value
D) Maximum foreign remittances via UPI
E) Launch of UPI in all Asian countries
Answer: C) Highest-ever UPI transaction volume and value

Event and Location:

• Event: UPI achieves highest-ever monthly volume and value of digital transactions
• Location: Nationwide (India); International rollout in 7 countries including France
• Date: July 2025

Mandates and Objectives:

• Mandates:
  • The National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI) recorded 19.47 billion transactions valued at ₹25.08 lakh crore via UPI in July 2025, setting new monthly records.
• Objectives:
  • To further India’s shift to a cashless, digital economy, enhance financial inclusion, support small businesses and nanopreneurs, and extend India’s real-time payments infrastructure globally through the expansion of UPI.

Important Terms Explained:

• Unified Payments Interface (UPI): A real-time digital payments system developed by NPCI, allowing instant money transfer between bank accounts via mobile phones and apps.
• NPCI (National Payments Corporation of India): An RBI and Indian Banks’ Association initiative that manages and operates retail payments systems like UPI, IMPS, RuPay, and more.
• Nanopreneurs: Extremely small-scale entrepreneurs or self-employed individuals operating with minimal capital and infrastructure, now increasingly using UPI for digital transactions.

Tabular Summary:

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7. Which organization has launched Aadhaar-based face authentication for digital banking in India?
A) State Bank of India
B) Reserve Bank of India
C) India Post Payments Bank
D) UIDAI
E) NPCI
Answer: C) India Post Payments Bank

Event and Location:

• Event: IPPB launches Aadhaar-based face authentication for banking transactions
• Location: Nationwide (India)
• Date: August 4, 2025

Mandates and Objectives:

• Mandates:
  • The India Post Payments Bank (IPPB) has rolled out an Aadhaar-based face authentication feature that enables customers to complete digital banking transactions using facial recognition instead of fingerprints or OTPs.
• Objectives:
  • To promote secure, inclusive, and contactless digital banking, especially for the elderly, differently-abled, and individuals with biometric challenges, aligning with the government’s financial inclusion goals and IPPB’s mission of “Aapka Bank, Aapke Dwaar.”

Important Terms Explained:

• Face Authentication: A contactless biometric verification method using facial recognition technology linked to Aadhaar, allowing secure transactions without the need for fingerprints or OTPs.
• UIDAI (Unique Identification Authority of India): The government body responsible for managing Aadhaar infrastructure; provides the technical framework for Aadhaar-linked services, including face authentication.
• IPPB (India Post Payments Bank): A government-owned payments bank offering financial services across India, especially in rural areas, using the postal network to expand last-mile banking access.

Tabular Summary:

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8. Which bank is merging with Saraswat Co-operative Bank as approved by the RBI in August 2025?
A) Punjab & Maharashtra Co-operative Bank
B) Abhyudaya Co-operative Bank
C) Cosmos Co-operative Bank
D) New India Co-operative Bank
E) Janata Sahakari Bank
Answer: D) New India Co-operative Bank

Event and Location:

• Event: RBI approves merger of New India Co-operative Bank with Saraswat Co-operative Bank
• Location: Mumbai, India
• Date: August 1, 2025 (RBI approval); August 4, 2025 (merger effective)

Mandates and Objectives:

• Mandates:
  • The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has approved the Scheme of Amalgamation between New India Co-operative Bank Ltd (NICBL) and Saraswat Co-operative Bank, wherein Saraswat Bank will assume all assets and liabilities of NICBL.
• Objectives:
  • To protect depositor interests, improve operational stability, and support consolidation in the cooperative banking sector, enhancing the financial health and service reach of the merged entity.

Important Terms Explained:

• Scheme of Amalgamation: A legal and regulatory framework allowing one bank to merge with another by acquiring all assets and liabilities, typically for financial consolidation and improved governance.
• Section 44A of the Banking Regulation Act, 1949: Grants powers to RBI to approve mergers between co-operative banks when both parties and their shareholders agree.
• Co-operative Bank: A financial entity owned and operated by its members, typically serving local communities with affordable banking and credit services.

Tabular Summary:

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Business and Economy – Daily Current Affairs August 04

9. What is the primary objective of the MoU signed between BSNL and NRL during the Industry 4.0 Workshop?
A) Launching nationwide 4G service in refineries
B) Establishing public-private telecom partnerships
C) Deploying India’s first 5G CNPN in the refinery sector
D) Introducing satellite internet for industrial use
E) Enhancing mobile connectivity in rural Assam
Answer: C) Deploying India’s first 5G CNPN in the refinery sector

Event and Location:

• Event: Signing of MoU between BSNL and NRL for Industry 4.0 deployment
• Location: Guwahati, Assam (North Eastern Region)
• Date: August 4, 2025

Mandates and Objectives:

• Mandates:
  • The MoU mandates BSNL and NRL to jointly deploy India’s first 5G CNPN (Captive Non-Public Network) in the refinery sector as part of the Industry 4.0 initiative.
• Objectives:
  • The objective is to enable technological transformation using 5G, IoT, Digital Twins, and AR/VR, thereby improving industrial efficiency, resilience, and cybersecurity in alignment with Digital India and Atmanirbhar Bharat visions.

Important Terms Explained:

• 5G CNPN (Captive Non-Public Network): A private 5G network dedicated to a specific enterprise, offering ultra-secure, real-time communication and operational control within industrial zones.
• Industry 4.0: The fourth industrial revolution focusing on smart automation, real-time data, and interconnected systems like IoT, Artificial Intelligence, and Big Data in manufacturing and infrastructure.
• Digital Twins: Virtual replicas of physical processes, systems, or products that simulate operations, enabling predictive maintenance and enhanced decision-making.

Tabular Summary:

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10. What was the Weighted Average Lending Rate (WALR) on fresh rupee loans of SCBs in June 2025?
A) 9.48%
B) 9.20%
C) 8.62%
D) 8.75%
E) 5.75%
Answer: C) 8.62%

Event and Location:

• Event: Decline in weighted average lending and deposit rates of SCBs
• Location: India
• Date: Data reported in July 2025 (for June 2025 figures)

Mandates and Objectives:

• Mandates: The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) published monthly data showing a significant easing in lending and deposit rates among scheduled commercial banks (SCBs), excluding RRBs and SFBs.
• Objectives:
  • To monitor interest rate trends across the banking sector
  • To provide transparency on the cost of borrowing and saving for consumers and businesses

Important Terms Explained:

• WALR (Weighted Average Lending Rate): The average interest rate charged by banks on loans, weighted by the volume of each loan.
• MCLR (Marginal Cost of Funds-based Lending Rate): The minimum interest rate below which banks are not permitted to lend, except in some cases. It reflects the marginal cost of funds and other components.
• WADTDR (Weighted Average Domestic Term Deposit Rate): The average interest rate paid by banks on term deposits, weighted by the deposit volume.

Tabular Summary:

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Appointments – Daily Current Affairs August 04

11. Who has been appointed as Executive Director of PNB Housing Finance after Girsh Kousgi’s resignation?
A) Valli Sekar
B) Dilip Vaitheeswaran
C) Anujai Saxena
D) Jatul Anand
E) R. Viswesvaran
Answer: D) Jatul Anand

Event and Location:

• Event: Leadership changes at PNB Housing Finance following CEO resignation
• Location: Mumbai, India (Corporate HQ)
• Date: August 2, 2025 (appointments effective), resignation effective October 28, 2025

Mandates and Objectives:

• Mandates:
  • Following the resignation of MD & CEO Girsh Kousgi, PNB Housing Finance has appointed Jatul Anand as Executive Director and Valli Sekar as Chief Business Officer – Affordable Business.
• Objectives:
  • To ensure leadership continuity, maintain strategic focus on core business segments, and stabilize market sentiment amid leadership transitions, while continuing the company’s trajectory of robust growth and strong asset quality.

Important Terms Explained:

• Executive Director: A senior management position responsible for strategic operations across business verticals such as sales, credit, products, and collections.
• Chief Business Officer – Affordable Business: A leadership role overseeing affordable housing strategy, execution, and operations, often aligned with financial inclusion and priority sector lending.
• PNB Housing Finance: A registered housing finance company (HFC) under National Housing Bank (NHB), majority owned by Punjab National Bank, offering home loans and property-related financial products.

Tabular Summary:

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12. Who has been appointed as the new Director General of Sashastra Seema Bal (SSB) with effect from September 1, 2025?
A) Amrit Mohan Prasad
B) Vivek Srivastava
C) Sanjay Singhal
D) Sujoy Lal Thaosen
E) Ajay Mishra
Answer: C) Sanjay Singhal

Event and Location:

• Event: Appointment of new Director General of Sashastra Seema Bal (SSB)
• Location: India
• Date: Appointment effective from September 1, 2025

Mandates and Objectives:

• Mandates:
  • Sanjay Singhal, a 1993-batch IPS officer from Uttar Pradesh cadre, has been appointed as Director General (DG) of SSB.
  • He will succeed Amrit Mohan Prasad, who retires on August 31, 2025.
  • His tenure will continue till December 31, 2028, or until further notice.
• Objectives:
  • To ensure leadership continuity in one of India’s key paramilitary forces.
  • To bolster border management along Nepal and Bhutan frontiers through strategic leadership.

Important Terms Explained:

• Sashastra Seema Bal (SSB): A paramilitary force under the Ministry of Home Affairs, responsible for guarding India’s borders with Nepal and Bhutan.
• IPS Officer: An officer of the Indian Police Service, recruited through UPSC Civil Services Examination, serving in various law enforcement and intelligence agencies.
• Appointments Committee of the Cabinet (ACC): The authority that approves appointments to top government posts, including heads of paramilitary forces and PSUs.

Tabular Summary:

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Science and Technology – Daily Current Affairs August 04

13. Which U.S.-based company developed the BlueBird satellite that ISRO will launch aboard LVM3?
A) SpaceX
B) Boeing
C) AST SpaceMobile
D) Blue Origin
E) Lockheed Martin
Answer: C) AST SpaceMobile

Event and Location:

• Event: ISRO prepares to launch BlueBird satellite in collaboration with AST SpaceMobile
• Location: Satish Dhawan Space Centre, Sriharikota
• Date: Launch expected late 2025 (Satellite arriving September 2025)

Mandates and Objectives:

• Mandates:
  • ISRO will launch the 6,500 kg BlueBird communications satellite developed by AST SpaceMobile using the LVM3 launch vehicle as part of its Indo-U.S. space collaboration.
• Objectives:
  • To expand global communication infrastructure, strengthen Indo-U.S. space cooperation, and advance ISRO’s profile in commercial satellite launches, while continuing progress on Gaganyaan and India’s space station project.

Important Terms Explained:

• BlueBird Satellite: A next-generation communication satellite developed by AST SpaceMobile to deliver space-based broadband connectivity; weighs 6,500 kg and will be launched by ISRO’s LVM3.
• LVM3 (Launch Vehicle Mark-3): ISRO’s most powerful launch vehicle, formerly known as GSLV Mk III, capable of carrying heavy payloads into low Earth and geostationary orbits.
• Gaganyaan Programme: India’s human spaceflight mission involving uncrewed and crewed flights; aims to send Indian astronauts into space by 2027 using an indigenously developed orbital module and crew escape system.
• Bharatiya Antariksh Station: India’s planned space station, to be launched in stages starting 2028, targeting full operational status by 2035 to ensure long-term human presence in space.
• NISAR (NASA-ISRO Synthetic Aperture Radar): A joint Earth observation satellite mission launched in July 2025; used for studying Earth’s surface changes, natural disasters, and climate impact.

Tabular Summary:

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Defence – Daily Current Affairs August 04

14. What aircraft is being delivered to India to replace the ageing Avro fleet of the IAF?
A) HAL Tejas
B) Rafale M
C) C-295MW
D) Embraer EMB 145
E) Su-30MKI
Answer: C) C-295MW

Event and Location:

• Event: India receives final C-295MW aircraft from Spain under 2021 contract
• Location: Seville, Spain (delivery); Vadodara, Gujarat (manufacturing in India)
• Date: August 4, 2025

Mandates and Objectives:

• Mandates:
  • India finalized the delivery of 16 Airbus C-295MW aircraft from Airbus Defence and Space, Spain, under a contract signed in 2021. The remaining 40 aircraft will be manufactured in India by Tata Advanced Systems Limited (TASL).
• Objectives:
  • To modernize the Indian Air Force (IAF) by replacing the outdated Avro fleet, strengthen defence self-reliance through local manufacturing, and create a robust Make in India defence ecosystem through collaboration with Indian private and public sector companies.

Important Terms Explained:

• C-295MW Aircraft: A tactical transport aircraft with 5–10 tonne payload capacity and 11-hour endurance, used for troop movement, cargo transport, disaster relief, and medevac operations.
• Make in India: A national initiative launched in 2014 to encourage domestic manufacturing, especially in strategic sectors like defence, aiming for reduced import dependency.
• Final Assembly Line (FAL): The last stage of aircraft manufacturing where all major components are assembled; the TATA Aircraft Complex in Vadodara is India’s first private-sector FAL for military aircraft.

Tabular Summary:

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15. What was the primary purpose of the Indian Army’s Exercise DIVYA DRISHTI conducted in July 2025?
A) Testing new artillery in desert terrain
B) Showcasing naval missile systems
C) Validating AI and surveillance technologies in high-altitude warfare
D) Conducting joint drills with foreign forces
E) Training for urban disaster management
Answer: C) Validating AI and surveillance technologies in high-altitude warfare

Event and Location:

• Event: Indian Army conducts Exercise DIVYA DRISHTI to test battlefield tech
• Location: East Sikkim, India
• Date: July 2025

Mandates and Objectives:

• Mandates:
  • The Indian Army’s Trishakti Corps conducted a high-altitude warfare drill called Exercise DIVYA DRISHTI.
  • The exercise included field testing of UAVs, AI-driven sensors, and real-time battlefield surveillance systems.
• Objectives:
  • To validate emerging technologies like artificial intelligence, drones, and secure communication networks under real-world conditions.
  • To assess the operational readiness of troops in high-altitude, rugged terrain and simulate quick decision-making using tech-driven intelligence.

Important Terms Explained:

• Exercise DIVYA DRISHTI: A field training exercise by the Indian Army in East Sikkim to test and integrate advanced technologies like AI and drones in real-time high-altitude scenarios.
• Artificial Intelligence (AI): In this context, refers to smart systems capable of processing data and supporting surveillance and command decisions on the battlefield.
• UAV (Unmanned Aerial Vehicle): Drones used for aerial reconnaissance, real-time monitoring, and rapid tactical updates in high-altitude warfare.

Tabular Summary:

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International Affairs – Daily Current Affairs August 04

16. Where was the 15th Meeting of the Conference of the Contracting Parties (COP15) to the Ramsar Convention on Wetlands held?
A) Geneva
B) Nairobi
C) Victoria Falls
D) New Delhi
E) Jakarta
Answer: C) Victoria Falls

Event and Location:

• Event: COP15 of the Ramsar Convention concludes with major resolutions
• Location: Victoria Falls, Zimbabwe
• Date: August 2025

Mandates and Objectives:

• Mandates: COP15 adopted resolutions on wetland restoration, urban wetland management, equitable governance, and conservation of wetland-dependent species including migratory birds and river dolphins.
• Objectives: The resolutions aim to enhance protection of freshwater ecosystems, support rights-based and inclusive governance, and align global wetland conservation efforts with climate, biodiversity, and sustainable development goals.

Important Terms Explained:

• Ramsar Convention on Wetlands: An international treaty adopted in 1971 in Ramsar, Iran, for the conservation and wise use of wetlands. It designates Wetlands of International Importance and promotes sustainable use.
• Freshwater Challenge: A global initiative encouraging countries to restore 300,000 km of degraded rivers and 350 million hectares of wetlands by 2030.
• Montreux Record: A register maintained under the Ramsar Convention of wetland sites facing ecological change. Used to prioritize urgent action.
• IUCN Red List of Threatened Species™: A critical indicator of the health of biodiversity, providing data on species at risk and used in Ramsar wetland designation.
• Other Effective Area-Based Conservation Measures (OECMs): Sites outside formal protected areas that achieve effective long-term conservation of biodiversity.

Tabular Summary:

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17. Which organization, in partnership with Huawei’s TECH4ALL programme, is conducting the Innovation Challenge Workshop Series on emerging conservation technologies?
A) UNDP
B) World Bank
C) IUCN
D) WWF
E) UNEP
Answer: C) IUCN

Event and Location:

• Event: Innovation Challenge Workshops on Emerging Technologies for Conservation
• Location: Online (Global Participation)
• Date: August and September 2025 (First session: 20 August 2025)

Mandates and Objectives:

• Mandates:
  • Conduct three interactive workshops under the Tech4Nature initiative on AI & IoT, Blockchain, and Gamification.
  • Engage 50 participants per session from conservation and technology sectors.
• Objectives:
  • Strengthen the role of emerging technologies in biodiversity monitoring, conservation finance, governance, and community engagement.
  • Provide an inclusive, dialogue-driven space for conservation practitioners to explore and apply tech tools.

Important Terms Explained:

• Tech4Nature:
  • A partnership initiative led by IUCN’s Centre for Conservation Action and Huawei’s TECH4ALL programme, aimed at promoting digital innovation in protected and conserved areas.
• IUCN (International Union for Conservation of Nature):
  • A global authority on the status of the natural world and the measures needed to safeguard it.
• TECH4ALL:
  • Huawei’s long-term digital inclusion initiative supporting tech-driven sustainability, conservation, and education projects.
• Gamification:
  • The application of game-design principles in non-game contexts to motivate participation, improve engagement, and enhance learning or behaviour outcomes.
• Blockchain in Conservation:
  • The use of distributed ledger systems to improve transparency, funding traceability, and community accountability in environmental governance.

Tabular Summary:

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Schemes – Daily Current Affairs August 04

18. Which Indian state is the first to introduce a Sabbatical Leave Scheme for government employees?
A) Kerala
B) Gujarat
C) Maharashtra
D) Himachal Pradesh
E) Sikkim
Answer: E) Sikkim

Event and Location:

• Event: Sikkim launches India’s first Sabbatical Leave Scheme for government employees
• Location: Sikkim
• Date: August 2023 (scheme launch); reforms updated till April 2025

Mandates and Objectives:

• Mandates:
  • The Government of Sikkim launched a Sabbatical Leave Scheme applicable to regular and temporary state government employees, allowing extended leave with partial pay while preserving job security and seniority.
• Objectives:
  • To promote personal and professional development, improve work-life balance, encourage entrepreneurial and educational pursuits, and introduce flexibility within administrative systems, while maintaining continuity in public services.

Important Terms Explained:

• Sabbatical Leave Scheme: A long-duration leave policy allowing eligible employees to take time off (365 to 1,080 days) for personal or professional reasons while receiving 50% of basic pay, with job security and seniority maintained.
• Group A, B, C, D Employees: Categorization of government employees based on their roles and ranks. Group A & B are higher-level officers, while C & D include clerical and support staff.
• Decentralised Approval System: A governance reform where Heads of Departments (HODs) can now approve sabbatical leave for Group C & D employees, while approval for Group A & B lies with the Secretary of the Personnel Department, streamlining the decision-making process.

Tabular Summary:

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19. What is the name of the government initiative launched in 2025 to provide hygienic resting facilities for truck drivers in India?
A) Gati Shakti Bhawan
B) Sarathi Sadan
C) Apna Ghar
D) Vishram Kendras
E) Ghar Chaupal
Answer: C) Apna Ghar

Event and Location:

• Event: Launch of ‘Apna Ghar’ resting facilities for truck drivers
• Location: Nationwide (India)
• Date: July 1, 2025 (implementation status as of)

Mandates and Objectives:

• Mandates: The Ministry of Petroleum and Natural Gas has launched ‘Apna Ghar’, a nationwide scheme to provide truck drivers with safe, hygienic, and restful accommodations at highway fuel outlets.
• Objectives: The initiative aims to enhance the health, comfort, and welfare of truck drivers by offering well-equipped resting spaces, thereby boosting their working conditions and contributing to the nation’s logistics efficiency.

Important Terms Explained:

• Apna Ghar: A government initiative launched in 2025 to establish dedicated resting facilities for truck drivers across highways, offering beds, food, hygiene, and wellness amenities.
• Oil Marketing Companies (OMCs): Government-owned fuel companies such as Indian Oil, Bharat Petroleum, and Hindustan Petroleum that manage retail fuel outlets and now host ‘Apna Ghar’ facilities.
• Apna Ghar Mobile App: A digital platform developed to help drivers locate, book, and use resting facilities in real-time, promoting tech-based convenience in logistics support.

Tabular Summary:

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20. What is the total outlay of the Central Sector Scheme approved for the National Cooperative Development Corporation (NCDC) from FY 2025-26 to FY 2028-29?
A) Rs.500 crore
B) Rs.10,000 crore
C) Rs.2,000 crore
D) Rs.20,000 crore
E) Rs.1,000 crore
Answer: C) Rs.2,000 crore

Event and Location:

• Event: Cabinet approval of Central Sector Scheme – Grant-in-aid to NCDC
• Location: Pan-India
• Date: 31 July 2025

Mandates and Objectives:

• Mandates:
  • The Union Cabinet approved a Central Sector Scheme titled “Grant-in-aid to NCDC” with a budgetary outlay of Rs.2,000 crore for FY 2025–26 to FY 2028–29.
  • NCDC will use this grant to raise Rs.20,000 crore from the open market to provide loans to cooperatives.
• Objectives:
  • To support cooperatives across sectors such as dairy, fisheries, livestock, sugar, textile, food processing, cold storage, and women-led cooperatives.
  • To enable the creation of income-generating assets, provide liquidity through working capital, and promote rural employment and infrastructure development.

Important Terms Explained:

• NCDC (National Cooperative Development Corporation): A statutory body under the Ministry of Cooperation responsible for financing and promoting cooperative development in India.
• Central Sector Scheme: A scheme fully funded by the Central Government and implemented directly by Central agencies.
• Working Capital: The funds required for day-to-day operations of an organization or cooperative, including purchase of raw materials and payment of wages.

Tabular Summary:

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21. What is the total approved outlay for the Pradhan Mantri Kisan Sampada Yojana (PMKSY) during the 15th Finance Commission Cycle (2021–22 to 2025–26)?
A) Rs.5000 crore
B) Rs.6520 crore
C) Rs.4000 crore
D) Rs.1920 crore
E) Rs.7500 crore
Answer: B) Rs.6520 crore

Event and Location:

• Event: Cabinet approval of enhanced outlay for Pradhan Mantri Kisan Sampada Yojana (PMKSY)
• Location: Nationwide (India)
• Date: 31 July 2025

Mandates and Objectives:

• Mandates:
  • Approval of Rs.6520 crore total outlay, including an additional Rs.1920 crore, for the ongoing PMKSY scheme during the 15th Finance Commission Cycle (2021–22 to 2025–26).
  • Allocation includes:
    • Rs.1000 crore for 50 Multi-Product Food Irradiation Units under ICCVAI.
    • Rs.920 crore for projects under various PMKSY components, including 100 NABL-accredited Food Testing Labs (FTLs) under FSQAI.
• Objectives:
  • Enhance food processing capacity and reduce food wastage.
  • Strengthen food safety infrastructure and encourage value addition in agri-produce.
  • Promote private sector participation in infrastructure development and ensure safe food supply.

Important Terms Explained:

• PMKSY (Pradhan Mantri Kisan Sampada Yojana):
  • A Central Sector Scheme launched by the Ministry of Food Processing Industries to create modern infrastructure and efficient supply chains for agro-processing clusters.
• ICCVAI (Integrated Cold Chain and Value Addition Infrastructure):
  • A component under PMKSY focused on building cold chain and food preservation units to reduce post-harvest losses.
• FSQAI (Food Safety and Quality Assurance Infrastructure):
  • A PMKSY component that supports establishment of food testing laboratories to ensure compliance with food safety regulations.
• NABL (National Accreditation Board for Testing and Calibration Laboratories):
  • An autonomous body under the Quality Council of India that provides accreditation to labs that meet international standards.

Tabular Summary:

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National Affairs – Daily Current Affairs August 04

22. Where has India’s first indigenously developed 1MW green hydrogen plant been commissioned?
A) Paradip Port
B) Mumbai Port
C) Chennai Port
D) Kandla Port
E) Visakhapatnam Port
Answer: D) Kandla Port

Event and Location:

• Event: Commissioning of India’s first indigenous green hydrogen plant
• Location: Kandla, Gujarat
• Date: August 4, 2025

Mandates and Objectives:

• Mandates:
  • The Deendayal Port Authority (DPA) has commissioned a 1MW green hydrogen plant using indigenously manufactured technology under the Make in India initiative.
• Objectives:
  • The goal is to reduce the carbon footprint of Indian ports, enable clean mobility through green hydrogen, and serve as a model for maritime decarbonization across the country.

Important Terms Explained:

• Green Hydrogen: Hydrogen produced using renewable energy (such as solar or wind) through electrolysis, generating no carbon emissions, making it a clean alternative fuel.
• Make in India: A flagship government initiative launched in 2014 to promote domestic manufacturing, reduce import dependency, and boost indigenous technological development.
• Maritime Decarbonization: The process of reducing greenhouse gas emissions from port and shipping operations by adopting cleaner fuels, renewable energy, and efficient logistics.

Tabular Summary:

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23. Which railway line in Madhya Pradesh has resumed heritage train services after a temporary suspension?
A) Ratlam–Ujjain Line
B) Indore–Khandwa Line
C) Patalpani–Kalakund Line
D) Choral–Khandwa Line
E) Mhow–Akola Line
Answer: C) Patalpani–Kalakund Line

Event and Location:

• Event: Resumption of heritage train services on the 155-year-old Patalpani–Kalakund line
• Location: Madhya Pradesh (Dr Ambedkar Nagar–Khandwa section)
• Date: August 2025 (services resumed in the last week of July)

Mandates and Objectives:

• Mandates:
  • Western Railway has resumed heritage train operations on the 9.5 km meter-gauge Patalpani–Kalakund line, first preserved for tourism in 2018, after a brief suspension due to low tourist turnout.
• Objectives:
  • To promote heritage tourism, preserve historical railway infrastructure, and celebrate India’s rail legacy, while offering scenic and cultural travel experiences through Madhya Pradesh’s hilly terrain.

Important Terms Explained:

• Heritage Train: A train service operated on historic railway lines with preserved coaches and routes to promote cultural tourism and commemorate India’s railway history.
• Meter Gauge: A railway track gauge of 1,000 mm, used historically across India, now largely replaced by Broad Gauge except in certain preserved or remote areas.
• Holkar State Railways: A princely-state-operated railway line funded and initiated by Maharaja Tukoji Rao Holkar II to connect Indore and Khandwa, built between 1870 and 1878.
• Rajputana–Malwa Railway: One of the early railway systems in British India that absorbed the Holkar State Railway in the 1880s, extending connectivity across central and western India.

Tabular Summary:

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24. Where was the first-ever BIMSTEC Traditional Music Festival, ‘SaptaSur: Seven Nations, One Melody’, held?
A) Bangkok
B) Colombo
C) Kathmandu
D) New Delhi
E) Thimphu
Answer: D) New Delhi

Event and Location:

• Event: First BIMSTEC Traditional Music Festival – SaptaSur: Seven Nations, One Melody
• Location: Bharat Mandapam, New Delhi
• Date: August 4, 2025

Mandates and Objectives:

• Mandates:
  • The Indian Council for Cultural Relations (ICCR) organized the first-ever BIMSTEC Traditional Music Festival featuring artists from all seven member countries of BIMSTEC.
• Objectives:
  • To promote regional cultural cooperation, foster people-to-people connectivity, and use music as a medium of diplomatic and cultural exchange among BIMSTEC nations as envisioned by Prime Minister Narendra Modi during the April 2025 BIMSTEC Summit in Thailand.

Important Terms Explained:

• BIMSTEC (Bay of Bengal Initiative for Multi-Sectoral Technical and Economic Cooperation): A regional organization involving seven South and Southeast Asian nations focused on economic and technical collaboration across 14 priority sectors including culture.
• ICCR (Indian Council for Cultural Relations): An autonomous body under the Ministry of External Affairs that promotes India’s cultural exchange and diplomacy globally.
• SaptaSur – Seven Nations, One Melody: The official theme of the festival, symbolizing musical unity in diversity among the BIMSTEC member countries.

Tabular Summary:

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25. What is the main objective of the “Saksham Niveshak” campaign launched by IEPFA?
A) Promoting digital banking awareness
B) Educating youth on stock market investments
C) Facilitating dividend claims and KYC updates
D) Organizing start-up investment summits
E) Encouraging mutual fund SIP enrollments
Answer: C) Facilitating dividend claims and KYC updates

Event and Location:

• Event: Launch of “Saksham Niveshak” – A 100-Day National Campaign
• Location: Nationwide (India)
• Date: July 28 – November 6, 2025

Mandates and Objectives:

• Mandates: The Investor Education and Protection Fund Authority (IEPFA) has launched the “Saksham Niveshak” campaign, running for 100 days to assist shareholders in claiming unclaimed dividends and updating KYC and nomination details.
• Objectives:
  • To resolve unclaimed dividend-related cases
  • Ensure proper KYC and nomination compliance by shareholders
  • Facilitate direct dividend payouts and prevent fund transfers to IEPFA

Important Terms Explained:

• Investor Education and Protection Fund Authority (IEPFA): A statutory body under the Ministry of Corporate Affairs responsible for protecting investor interests and managing unclaimed dividends and shares.
• Unclaimed Dividends: Dividends declared by companies that remain uncollected by shareholders for a specified period, and are eventually transferred to the IEPF if unclaimed.
• KYC (Know Your Customer): A regulatory requirement that ensures accurate identification of investors through updated personal and financial records.

Tabular Summary:

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Over All Review

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