Daily Current Affairs August 01

Dear Champions, as you all know that a lot of competitive exams have been notified consequently. Candidates have to prepare themselves according to the level of competition and expectation of the Recruitment board. Regarding that one of the most important topic is Daily Current Affairs August 01. Current Affairs in the form of contemporary events of national & international play a crucial role in almost every competitive exams like Banking, Insurance, SSC, UPSC, TNPSC, Railway etc.

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August 01 | Daily Current Affairs 2025

Important Days – Daily Current Affairs August 01

1. What was Indonesia’s exclusive breastfeeding rate in 2024, as highlighted by UNICEF and WHO?
A) 52%
B) 58.6%
C) 60%
D) 66.4%
E) 70.2%
Answer: D) 66.4%

Event and Location:

• Event: Commemoration of World Breastfeeding Week 2025 and call for stronger support for breastfeeding mothers
• Location: Indonesia (national observance with support from UNICEF and WHO)
• Date: August 1, 2025

Mandates and Objectives:

• Mandates: UNICEF and WHO joined the Government of Indonesia in marking World Breastfeeding Week 2025, emphasizing the need to strengthen support systems for exclusive breastfeeding.
• Objectives: To ensure every mother has access to skilled counselling, workplace-friendly breastfeeding policies, and community-based support for successfully breastfeeding their child for the recommended six months.

Important Terms Explained:

• Exclusive Breastfeeding: Feeding an infant only breast milk (no other food or liquid) for the first six months of life.
• Ten Steps to Successful Breastfeeding: A WHO-UNICEF initiative for maternity hospitals to promote and support breastfeeding from birth.
• International Code of Marketing of Breast-milk Substitutes (BMS): A global public health framework to regulate the marketing of formula and protect breastfeeding from commercial influence.

Tabular Summary:

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2. National Mountain Climbing Day is celebrated annually on August 1 to honor the mountaineering achievement of which two climbers?
A) Edmund Hillary and Tenzing Norgay
B) Josh Madigan and Bobby Mathews
C) Avatar Singh Cheema and Bachendri Pal
D) Reinhold Messner and Arjun Vajpai
E) Santosh Yadav and Malavath Purna
Answer: B) Josh Madigan and Bobby Mathews

Event and Location:

• Event: Celebration of National Mountain Climbing Day 2025
• Location: Global (originated in the United States)
• Date: August 1, 2025

Mandates and Objectives:

• Mandates: National Mountain Climbing Day is observed annually on August 1 to commemorate Josh Madigan and Bobby Mathews’ ascent of the 46th peak of the Adirondack Mountains in 2015.
• Objectives: To promote mountain climbing as a physically and mentally enriching activity, celebrate resilience and adventure, and raise awareness about the importance of mountain ecosystems.

Important Terms Explained:

• Adirondack 46er Club: A recognition granted to those who successfully climb all 46 High Peaks of the Adirondack Mountains in New York.
• Whiteface Mountain: One of the 46 Adirondack High Peaks and the fifth-highest peak in New York State, scaled by the duo on August 1, 2015.
• Mount Everest First Indians: Avatar Singh Cheema (first Indian man in 1965) and Bachendri Pal (first Indian woman in 1984) are historic Indian figures in global mountaineering.

Tabular Summary:

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3. Which of the following is not commonly listed as an early warning sign of lung cancer?
A) Persistent hoarseness
B) Sudden shoulder pain
C) Cough lasting more than three weeks
D) Increased appetite
E) Recurrent chest infections
Answer: D) Increased appetite

Event and Location:

• Event: World Lung Cancer Day 2025 and awareness on early detection and changing risk profiles
• Location: Global (highlighted in India by Manipal Hospital, Bengaluru)
• Date: August 1, 2025

Mandates and Objectives:

• Mandates: On World Lung Cancer Day, healthcare institutions and doctors raised awareness that lung cancer is rising among non-smokers and women, and early symptoms often go unnoticed.
• Objectives: To encourage early screening, highlight lesser-known symptoms, and educate the public about evolving risk factors such as air pollution and secondhand smoke.

Important Terms Explained:

• Non-Small Cell Lung Cancer (NSCLC): The most common form of lung cancer, often asymptomatic in its early stages, making early detection difficult.
• Low-Dose CT Scan: A diagnostic imaging technique that uses lower amounts of radiation to screen high-risk individuals for early signs of lung cancer.
• Secondhand Smoke: Inhalation of smoke by individuals who are not actively smoking, but are exposed to tobacco smoke in the environment—recognized as a significant lung cancer risk factor.

Tabular Summary:

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4. What is the official theme of World Wide Web Day 2025?
A) Connecting the World Through the Internet
B) A Safer, Freer, Smarter Web
C) Empowering the Future: Building an Inclusive, Safe, and Open Web
D) Bridging the Web Divide
E) Web for All: Safe and Free
Answer: C) Empowering the Future: Building an Inclusive, Safe, and Open Web

Event and Location:

• Event: Celebration of World Wide Web Day 2025
• Location: Global (observed in all digitally connected regions)
• Date: August 1, 2025

Mandates and Objectives:

• Mandates: World Wide Web Day is observed annually on August 1 to recognize the invention and transformational role of the World Wide Web, and to emphasize digital inclusion, security, and innovation.
• Objectives: To promote a free, accessible, and safe web, address digital inequality and cybersecurity, and encourage ethical use of emerging technologies like AI and blockchain.

Important Terms Explained:

• World Wide Web (WWW): An information system invented by Sir Tim Berners-Lee in 1989, enabling access to web pages via the internet.
• Digital Divide: The gap between individuals or communities with adequate digital access and those without, often based on geography or income.
• Web 3.0: The next phase of the internet focused on decentralization, user control, and privacy, using blockchain and AI technologies.

Tabular Summary:

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5. Which Indian king led the victory against the Dutch in the Battle of Colachel, commemorated by the Indian Army in 2025?
A) Shivaji Maharaj
B) Tipu Sultan
C) Marthanda Varma
D) Hyder Ali
E) Ranjit Singh
Answer: C) Marthanda Varma

Event and Location:

• Event: Commemoration of the 284th anniversary of the Battle of Colachel
• Location: Colachel War Memorial, Kanyakumari district, Tamil Nadu
• Date: July 31, 2025

Mandates and Objectives:

• Mandates: The Indian Army’s Madras Regiment commemorated Travancore King Marthanda Varma’s victory over the Dutch East India Company in the 1741 Battle of Colachel, marking it as a landmark moment in Indian military history.
• Objectives: To honour the historic triumph of an Indian regional power over a European colonial force and to instill pride and remembrance through ceremonial homage and public engagement.

Important Terms Explained:

• Battle of Colachel (1741): A historic battle in which Travancore forces under King Marthanda Varma defeated the Dutch East India Company—regarded as the first major Indian victory over a European colonial navy.
• Travancore Kingdom: A princely state in pre-independence India, located in present-day Kerala and parts of Tamil Nadu, known for its naval and administrative strength.
• Victory Pillar: A commemorative structure erected by King Marthanda Varma at Colachel to memorialize the Travancore victory over the Dutch.

Tabular Summary:

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6. What campaign was integrated with Global Tiger Day celebrations at the National Zoological Park in 2025?
A) Save Tigers, Save Forests
B) Ek Ped Maa Ke Naam
C) Van Mahotsav Mission
D) Project Tiger Revival
E) Tigers for Tomorrow
Answer: B) Ek Ped Maa Ke Naam

Event and Location:

• Event: Week-long Global Tiger Day celebration and awareness programme
• Location: National Zoological Park, New Delhi
• Date: July 30 to August 5, 2025

Mandates and Objectives:

• Mandates:
  • Launch of a week-long awareness programme on tiger conservation by the National Zoological Park starting July 30.
  • Organization of educational activities including quizzes, film screenings, mask-making, and interactions with conservation experts.
  • Distribution of saplings to schools as part of the conservation initiative.
• Objectives:
  • To raise awareness among students about tiger conservation and biodiversity.
  • To integrate environmental action through the Ek Ped Maa Ke Naam campaign.
  • To encourage active student involvement in wildlife protection efforts.

Important Terms Explained:

• Global Tiger Day:
  • Observed annually on July 29, it aims to raise awareness about the endangered status of tigers and promote global efforts for their conservation.
• Ek Ped Maa Ke Naam:
  • A national tree plantation campaign encouraging citizens to plant a tree in honor of their mother, symbolizing care for both family and nature.
• National Zoological Park (NZP):
  • A premier zoological park in New Delhi under the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change, focusing on conservation education and species preservation.
• National Tiger Conservation Authority (NTCA):
  • A statutory body under the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change, established for strengthening tiger conservation in India.

Tabular Summary:

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Sports – Daily Current Affairs August 01

7. Who became the first-ever batter to score four centuries in his debut Test series as captain?
A) Don Bradman
B) Greg Chappell
C) Shubman Gill
D) Virat Kohli
E) Ben Stokes
Answer: C) Shubman Gill

Event and Location:

• Event: Shubman Gill scores four centuries in debut Test series as captain
• Location: Old Trafford, Manchester (Test series against England)
• Date: July 27, 2025

Mandates and Objectives:

• Mandates: Indian captain Shubman Gill achieved four Test centuries in his debut series as captain during the ongoing England series.
• Objectives: To solidify India’s batting performance and lead by example as the team’s new Test captain; contribute to India’s pursuit of series victory.

Important Terms Explained:

• Debut Test Series as Captain: Refers to a cricketer’s first appearance as a team captain in a full Test series, where performance as both player and leader is scrutinized.
• Century in Cricket: A score of 100 runs or more by a batsman in a single innings.
• Old Trafford: A historic cricket ground in Manchester, England, often hosting key international Test matches.

Tabular Summary:

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8. Who recently became the youngest swimmer in history to win a medal at the World Aquatics Championships?
A) Katie Ledecky
B) Inge Sorensen
C) Sharron Davies
D) Yu Zidi
E) Simone Manuel
Answer: D) Yu Zidi

Event and Location:

• Event: Yu Zidi becomes youngest medallist in World Aquatics Championships history
• Location: Singapore (2025 World Aquatics Championships)
• Date: August 1, 2025

Mandates and Objectives:

• Mandates: Chinese swimmer Yu Zidi, aged 12, secured a bronze medal in the women’s 4x200m freestyle relay by swimming in the heats, making her the youngest-ever medallist in World Aquatics Championships history.
• Objectives: To showcase elite youth talent in international aquatic sports while ensuring ethical discussion around early-age competitive participation and athlete wellbeing.

Important Terms Explained:

• World Aquatics Championships: A global competition organized by World Aquatics (formerly FINA) that features swimming, diving, water polo, open water, and artistic swimming.
• Freestyle Relay: A team swimming event where each swimmer completes an equal segment of the race using the freestyle stroke.
• ‘A’ Standard (Qualifying Time): The top-level qualifying standard that automatically grants an athlete entry into international swimming competitions based on performance.

Tabular Summary:

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Banking and Finance – Daily Current Affairs August 01

9. As per NPCI’s new rules from August 1, 2025, what is the daily limit for balance checks per UPI app?
A) 10
B) 25
C) 50
D) 75
E) 100
Answer: C) 50

Event and Location:

• Event: Implementation of revised financial rules and schedules by NPCI, SBI, and RBI
• Location: Pan-India (Applicable across financial systems and digital platforms)
• Date: August 1, 2025

Mandates and Objectives:

• Mandates: The National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI), RBI, and SBI introduced several updates effective August 1, 2025, including UPI rule changes, credit card insurance revision, and extended trading hours for money markets.
• Objectives: To improve transaction stability, fraud prevention, market liquidity, and cost transparency in digital and financial ecosystems.

Important Terms Explained:

• Unified Payments Interface (UPI): A real-time digital payment system developed by NPCI that allows users to send/receive money using mobile apps.
• Tri-Party Repo (TREPs): A type of repo transaction where a third party (usually a clearing agency) acts as an intermediary between the borrower and lender in the money market.
• Repo Rate: The interest rate at which RBI lends to commercial banks; it directly affects the interest rates on loans and deposits in the economy.

Tabular Summary:

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10. As per RBI’s new directions, what is the maximum a single regulated entity can invest in an AIF scheme?
A) 5% of the corpus
B) 10% of the corpus
C) 15% of the corpus
D) 20% of the corpus
E) 25% of the corpus
Answer: B) 10% of the corpus

Event and Location:

• Event: RBI issues new investment cap rules for regulated entities in AIF schemes
• Location: Pan-India (applicable to all banks, NBFCs, and financial institutions regulated by RBI)
• Date: July 29, 2025

Mandates and Objectives:

• Mandates: The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) issued the Investment in AIF Directions, 2025, capping the investment by any single regulated entity (RE) at 10% of an Alternative Investment Fund (AIF) scheme’s corpus and 20% collectively by all REs.
• Objectives: To manage risk exposure of financial institutions in AIFs, ensure prudent investment practices, avoid conflict of interest in downstream investments, and strengthen regulatory compliance.

Important Terms Explained:

• Alternative Investment Fund (AIF): A privately pooled investment vehicle that collects funds from investors for investing in accordance with a defined investment policy, regulated by SEBI.
• Regulated Entities (REs): Financial institutions such as banks, Non-Banking Financial Companies (NBFCs), and All-India Financial Institutions regulated by the RBI.
• Provisioning Requirement: A capital buffer mandated by RBI—if an RE invests more than 5% in an AIF that has downstream investment in the RE’s debtor, a 100% provision must be made for the exposure.

Tabular Summary:

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11. Which public sector bank collected the highest amount in penalties for non-maintenance of minimum balance between 2020–2025?
A) Punjab National Bank
B) Bank of Baroda
C) Indian Bank
D) Canara Bank
E) Union Bank of India
Answer: C) Indian Bank

Event and Location:

• Event: Disclosure of penalty income by public sector banks over five years
• Location: India (across all states with PSB operations)
• Date: Data reported in Rajya Sabha on July 30, 2025

Mandates and Objectives:

• Mandates:
  • Banks imposed penalties on customers for not maintaining the Minimum Average Monthly Balance (MAB) in savings accounts.
  • The Ministry of Finance directed banks to consider waiving or reducing these penalties, especially for customers in rural and semi-urban areas.
• Objectives:
  • To ensure financial inclusion and reduce burden on low-income account holders.
  • Promote fair banking access and encourage long-term banking relationships.

Important Terms Explained:

• Minimum Average Monthly Balance (MAB):
  • A banking requirement where customers must maintain a certain average balance in their savings account across the month, failing which a penalty is levied.
• CASA Ratio (Current Account and Savings Account Ratio):
  • The proportion of a bank’s deposits held in current and savings accounts. A higher CASA ratio is beneficial as these deposits are cheaper sources of funds for banks.
• Penalty Income:
  • Revenue earned by banks by charging fees or fines, in this case for non-maintenance of MAB.

Tabular Summary:

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Business and Economy – Daily Current Affairs August 01

12. What is the RBI-Digital Payments Index (RBI-DPI) value as of March 2025?
A) 445.50
B) 465.33
C) 493.22
D) 510.89
E) 423.80
Answer: C) 493.22

Event and Location:

• Event: RBI releases Digital Payments Index value for March 2025
• Location: Pan-India
• Date: July 28, 2025

Mandates and Objectives:

• Mandates: The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) released the semi-annual update of the Digital Payments Index (RBI-DPI) to reflect the extent of digitization in India’s payment systems.
• Objectives: To monitor, measure, and promote the deepening of digital payments infrastructure, usage, and performance across the country.

Important Terms Explained:

• RBI-DPI (RBI-Digital Payments Index): A composite index developed by the Reserve Bank of India to measure the growth and penetration of digital payments in India, with March 2018 as the base year (index = 100).
• Payment Infrastructure – Supply-side factors: This includes the number of bank branches, ATMs, Point of Sale terminals, mobile and internet banking, etc., contributing to better payment availability.
• Payment Performance: It refers to transaction volumes and values across digital modes like UPI, NEFT, IMPS, and mobile wallets, and carries the highest weight (45%) in the index calculation.

Tabular Summary:

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Appointments – Daily Current Affairs August 01

13. Who has been appointed as the next CEO of Procter & Gamble (P&G), effective from January 1, 2026?
A) Sundar Pichai
B) Satya Nadella
C) Shailesh Jejurikar
D) Arvind Krishna
E) Sanjay Mehrotra
Answer: C) Shailesh Jejurikar

Event and Location:

• Event: Appointment of Shailesh Jejurikar as next CEO of Procter & Gamble
• Location: Global (P&G Headquarters in the United States)
• Date: July 30, 2025

Mandates and Objectives:

• Mandates: Shailesh Jejurikar will take over as the CEO of Procter & Gamble (P&G) from January 1, 2026, succeeding current CEO Jon Moeller.
• Objectives: To provide strategic leadership to the company globally, continue expanding core businesses, and represent Indian-origin leadership in global corporations.

Important Terms Explained:

• Procter & Gamble (P&G): A global FMCG (Fast-Moving Consumer Goods) giant known for products in categories like home care, personal hygiene, and health care.
• Chief Operating Officer (COO): The executive position responsible for managing daily operations and implementing corporate strategies across the organization.
• Fortune 500 Company: A prestigious list published annually by Fortune magazine ranking the 500 largest U.S. companies by total revenue.

Tabular Summary:

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14. Who administered the oath to the four newly appointed Additional Judges of the Telangana High Court in July 2025?
A) President of India
B) Governor of Telangana
C) Chief Justice Aparesh Kumar Singh
D) Chief Justice of India
E) Union Law Minister
Answer: C) Chief Justice Aparesh Kumar Singh

Event and Location:

• Event: Swearing-in of four new Additional Judges of Telangana High Court
• Location: Telangana High Court, Hyderabad
• Date: July 31, 2025

Mandates and Objectives:

• Mandates:
  • Four advocates — Gouse Meera Mohiuddin, Chalapathi Rao Suddala, Gadi Praveen Kumar, and Vakiti Ramakrishna Reddy — were appointed as Additional Judges of the Telangana High Court.
  • The appointments were based on recommendations by the Supreme Court Collegium and approval by the Central Government.
• Objectives:
  • To strengthen the judicial bench of the Telangana High Court.
  • To fill pending vacancies and enhance judicial efficiency in Telangana.
  • To improve the court’s capacity to address increasing caseloads.

Important Terms Explained:

• Supreme Court Collegium:
  • A system where appointments and transfers of judges are decided by a group of the senior-most judges of the Supreme Court of India, including the Chief Justice of India.
• Additional Judges:
  • Judges appointed for a temporary period in High Courts to manage increased workload or when a vacancy exists, typically for two years or less, with the possibility of being made permanent later.
• Sanctioned Strength vs Working Strength:
  • Sanctioned strength refers to the total number of judge posts approved for a court, while working strength is the number of judges currently occupying those posts.

Tabular Summary:

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15. Who has been appointed as the new Director of Vikram Sarabhai Space Centre (VSSC) in August 2025?
A) S. Somanath
B) S. Unnikrishnan Nair
C) M. Annadurai
D) A. Rajarajan
E) T. Sivan
Answer: D) A. Rajarajan

Event and Location:

• Event: Appointment of A Rajarajan as Director of Vikram Sarabhai Space Centre (VSSC)
• Location: Thiruvananthapuram, Kerala
• Date: August 1, 2025

Mandates and Objectives:

• Mandates:
  • Senior ISRO scientist A Rajarajan assumes charge as the new Director of VSSC, replacing S. Unnikrishnan Nair, who retired on July 31, 2025.
  • Rajarajan previously led Satish Dhawan Space Centre (SDSC-SHAR) and has served in key roles at VSSC over his 40-year ISRO career.
• Objectives:
  • To drive innovation and further advance ISRO’s strategic missions through leadership at VSSC, India’s premier launch vehicle R&D centre.
  • To strengthen composite technology and industry collaborations in line with India’s space ambitions and policies.

Important Terms Explained:

• Vikram Sarabhai Space Centre (VSSC):
  • A major facility under ISRO, located in Thiruvananthapuram, Kerala. It focuses on the research and development of space launch vehicles and technologies.
• Satish Dhawan Space Centre (SDSC-SHAR):
  • India’s primary spaceport, located in Sriharikota, Andhra Pradesh. It is responsible for launching satellites and testing launch vehicles.
• In-SPACe (Indian National Space Promotion and Authorisation Centre):
  • A nodal agency under Department of Space, facilitating private sector participation in India’s space programmes.
• NISAR Satellite:
  • A joint NASA-ISRO Earth-observation mission focused on global environmental monitoring, including climate change and natural disasters.

Tabular Summary:

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Awards – Daily Current Affairs August 01

16. What is the title of Kiran Desai’s novel that made it to the 2025 Booker Prize longlist?
A) The Inheritance of Loss
B) Hullabaloo in the Guava Orchard
C) The Loneliness of Sonia and Sunny
D) The Rest of Our Lives
E) The Land in Winter
Answer: C) The Loneliness of Sonia and Sunny

Event and Location:

• Event: Kiran Desai’s novel makes it to the 2025 Booker Prize longlist
• Location: International (Booker Prize – UK based)
• Date: August 1, 2025

Mandates and Objectives:

• Mandates: Kiran Desai’s third novel, The Loneliness of Sonia and Sunny, has been selected for the 2025 Booker Prize longlist.
• Objectives: To recognize literary excellence globally and potentially make Desai a double Booker Prize winner, placing her among a rare group of authors.

Important Terms Explained:

• Booker Prize:
  • A prestigious literary award presented annually for the best original novel written in the English language and published in the UK or Ireland.
  • Established in 1969; awards £50,000 to the winner.
• The Loneliness of Sonia and Sunny:
  • Kiran Desai’s third novel, spanning over 650 pages, focusing on the lives of two Indian protagonists navigating identity, love, and migration.
  • Scheduled for release on September 23, 2025.
• Hamish Hamilton:
  • An imprint of Penguin Random House, known for publishing acclaimed literary fiction.
  • Publisher of Kiran Desai’s nominated novel.

Tabular Summary:

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Defence – Daily Current Affairs August 01

17. Who has been appointed as the new Vice Chief of the Army Staff of India as of July 31, 2025?
A) Lt Gen Rakesh Kapoor
B) Lt Gen Raj Shukla
C) Lt Gen Pushpendra Singh
D) Lt Gen Anil Chauhan
E) Lt Gen Bansi Ponnappa
Answer: C) Lt Gen Pushpendra Singh

Event and Location:

• Event: Appointment of Lt Gen Pushpendra Singh as Vice Chief of the Army Staff
• Location: Indian Army Headquarters, New Delhi
• Date: July 31, 2025

Mandates and Objectives:

• Mandates: Lieutenant General Pushpendra Singh took over as the Vice Chief of the Army Staff, the second-highest position in the Indian Army.
• Objectives: To assist the Chief of Army Staff (COAS) in overseeing operational preparedness, logistics, and strategic military movements of the Indian Army.

Important Terms Explained:

• Vice Chief of the Army Staff (VCOAS): The second-in-command in the Indian Army hierarchy, responsible for managing army operations and logistics in coordination with the COAS.
• Operational Logistics & Strategic Movement: The division responsible for planning, coordinating, and executing the strategic movement of troops and materials for military operations.
• OP SNOW LEOPARD: Military operation conducted by the Indian Army along the Line of Actual Control (LAC) during heightened tensions with China.

Tabular Summary:

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Schemes – Daily Current Affairs August 01

18. Which of the following is not a stated focus area in India’s new National Agriculture Policy announced in August 2025?
A) Agricultural diversification
B) Promoting agricultural exports
C) Developing post-harvest infrastructure
D) Reducing cost of production
E) Climate change adaptation
Answer: B) Promoting agricultural exports

Event and Location:

• Event: Announcement of new National Agriculture Policy strategy
• Location: Pan-India (by Ministry of Agriculture & Farmers Welfare, Government of India)
• Date: August 1, 2025

Mandates and Objectives:

• Mandates: The Government of India unveiled a strategic framework for the comprehensive growth of the agriculture sector through an updated National Agriculture Policy.
• Objectives: To enhance farmers’ incomes through increased productivity, diversification, post-harvest value addition, cost reduction, and climate-resilient farming methods.

Important Terms Explained:

• Gross Value Added (GVA): A measure of the value of goods and services produced in an area, sector, or economy; agricultural GVA growth for 2024–25 is provisionally estimated at 4.6%.
• Agricultural Diversification: The process of shifting from monoculture farming to diversified cropping patterns or integrating allied activities like dairy, poultry, and fisheries to reduce risk and increase income.
• Post-harvest Value Addition: Infrastructure and processes that increase the market value of agricultural produce after harvesting, such as grading, processing, packaging, and cold storage.

Tabular Summary:

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19. As of June 30, 2025, how many Jan Aushadhi Kendras (JAKs) have been opened at railway stations under the PMBJP scheme?
A) 86
B) 92
C) 106
D) 120
E) 136
Answer: C) 106

Event and Location:

• Event: Opening of 106 Jan Aushadhi Kendras at railway stations under PMBJP
• Location: Across India (at railway stations)
• Date: June 30, 2025 (data as per latest update)

Mandates and Objectives:

• Mandates: The Pradhan Mantri Bhartiya Janaushadhi Pariyojana (PMBJP) has enabled the opening of 106 Jan Aushadhi Kendras (JAKs) at railway stations by June 30, 2025.
• Objectives: To ensure easy access to affordable and quality generic medicines for passengers and the general public at railway stations and across rural and remote regions of the country.

Important Terms Explained:

• Pradhan Mantri Bhartiya Janaushadhi Pariyojana (PMBJP): A central government scheme aimed at making quality generic medicines available to all at affordable prices through special outlets called Jan Aushadhi Kendras.
• Jan Aushadhi Kendra (JAK): Retail outlets under PMBJP where quality generic medicines are sold at significantly lower prices compared to market rates.
• Primary Agricultural Credit Societies (PACS): Rural financial institutions that provide credit and are now being utilized to expand PMBJP reach by hosting JAKs.

Tabular Summary:

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20. As of July 15, 2025, how many Ayushman Arogya Mandirs (AAMs) have been operationalized across India?
A) 1.56 lakh
B) 1.62 lakh
C) 1.70 lakh
D) 1.78 lakh
E) 1.85 lakh
Answer: D) 1.78 lakh

Event and Location:

• Event: Operationalization update of Ayushman Arogya Mandirs across India
• Location: Nationwide (India)
• Date: July 15, 2025

Mandates and Objectives:

• Mandates: 1,78,154 Ayushman Arogya Mandirs (AAMs), formerly known as AB-HWCs, have been made operational across India to deliver comprehensive primary health care closer to the community.
• Objectives: To strengthen Sub Health Centres (SHCs) and Primary Health Centres (PHCs) for providing preventive, promotive, curative, rehabilitative, and diagnostic services, and to promote wellness and digital health integration.

Important Terms Explained:

• Ayushman Arogya Mandirs (AAMs): Rebranded from Ayushman Bharat Health and Wellness Centres (AB-HWCs), these are centers delivering 12 primary health care service packages and conducting wellness activities.
• Free Diagnostics Service Initiative (FDSI): A component under National Health Mission (NHM) launched in 2015, providing free diagnostic services including 14 tests at Sub Centres and 63 at PHCs.
• Ayushman Bharat Digital Mission (ABDM): A national mission aimed at creating a digital health ecosystem, enabling citizens to create ABHA IDs and link their Electronic Health Records (EHRs) for continuity of care.

Tabular Summary:

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21. As of June 30, 2025, how many dialysis centres are operational under the Pradhan Mantri National Dialysis Program (PMNDP)?
A) 1,234
B) 1,508
C) 1,704
D) 1,815
E) 2,021
Answer: C) 1,704

Event and Location:

• Event: Operational update on Pradhan Mantri National Dialysis Program (PMNDP)
• Location: Implemented across 751 districts in all 36 States and Union Territories of India
• Date: June 30, 2025

Mandates and Objectives:

• Mandates: A total of 1,704 dialysis centres are operational under PMNDP across 751 districts in 36 States/UTs as of June 30, 2025.
• Objectives: To provide affordable haemodialysis and peritoneal dialysis services to patients with chronic kidney disease, especially in underserved and tribal areas, by establishing dialysis units in district hospitals and CHCs.

Important Terms Explained:

• Pradhan Mantri National Dialysis Program (PMNDP): A national initiative launched to provide free dialysis services to poor patients under the umbrella of National Health Mission (NHM).
• Haemodialysis: A process of purifying the blood of a person whose kidneys are not functioning properly using a dialysis machine.
• Peritoneal Dialysis: A method of dialysis where the lining of the abdominal cavity (peritoneum) is used to filter blood internally.
• Programme Implementation Plan (PIP): An annual planning and budgeting document submitted by States/UTs to the Union Government under NHM for funding and implementation.

Tabular Summary:

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22. How much funding has been allocated under the PM E-DRIVE Scheme for EV charging infrastructure as of 2025?
A) ₹1,000 crore
B) ₹1,500 crore
C) ₹2,000 crore
D) ₹2,500 crore
E) ₹3,000 crore
Answer: C) ₹2,000 crore

Event and Location:

• Event: Expansion of PM E-DRIVE Scheme with charging infrastructure plan
• Location: Pan-India including cities and inter-city/inter-state highways
• Date: August 1, 2025

Mandates and Objectives:

• Mandates: The Government of India has allocated ₹2,000 crore under the PM E-DRIVE Scheme to facilitate the installation of EV charging infrastructure across the country.
• Objectives: To accelerate electric vehicle adoption by establishing accessible public charging stations within city limits and along selected inter-city/inter-state highways, in coordination with multiple government stakeholders.

Important Terms Explained:

• PM E-DRIVE Scheme: A central initiative aimed at promoting electric mobility through financial support for setting up EV charging stations across India.
• EV Charging Infrastructure: The system and equipment required to charge electric vehicles, including slow, fast, and ultra-fast chargers at public and highway locations.
• Central Public Sector Enterprises (CPSEs): Government-owned corporations or companies that are involved in implementing infrastructure and strategic programs including EV-related services.

Tabular Summary:

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23. Under which scheme is the new defence testing facility in Tamil Nadu being established?
A) Make in India Scheme
B) Defence Manufacturing Mission
C) Atmanirbhar Bharat Yojana
D) Defence Testing Infrastructure Scheme
E) DRDO Development Programme
Answer: D) Defence Testing Infrastructure Scheme

Event and Location:

• Event: MoD and TIDCO sign MoU for a mechanical and material testing facility
• Location: Tiruchirappalli, Tamil Nadu Defence Industrial Corridor
• Date: July 28, 2025

Mandates and Objectives:

• Mandates: The Ministry of Defence (MoD) signed an MoU with TIDCO and other partners to set up a mechanical and material testing facility under the Defence Testing Infrastructure Scheme (DTIS).
• Objectives: To develop world-class defence testing infrastructure, reduce import dependency, and enhance indigenous defence production capabilities.

Important Terms Explained:

• Defence Testing Infrastructure Scheme (DTIS):
  • Launched by the Ministry of Defence with an outlay of ₹4,000 crore.
  • Provides 75% government funding for testing facilities, with the remaining 25% from a Special Purpose Vehicle (SPV).
  • Aims to build indigenous testing infrastructure to support local defence manufacturing.
• Special Purpose Vehicle (SPV):
  • A consortium formed for project implementation, involving government and private entities.
  • For this project, the SPV is led by Micro Labs and includes TIDCO, BEML, HAL, and Vaidheswaran Industries.
• Tamil Nadu Defence Industrial Corridor:
  • One of India’s key defence manufacturing hubs.
  • Aims to attract investment and boost aerospace and defence industries in the state.

Tabular Summary:

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National Affairs – Daily Current Affairs August 01

24. What is the total estimated cost of development projects for which foundation stones were laid by Bihar CM in Muzaffarpur on July 31, 2025?
A) ₹472.50 crore
B) ₹515.20 crore
C) ₹574.16 crore
D) ₹604.30 crore
E) ₹589.00 crore
Answer: C) ₹574.16 crore

Event and Location:

• Event: Foundation stone laying for infrastructure and welfare projects
• Location: Muzaffarpur, Bihar
• Date: July 31, 2025

Mandates and Objectives:

• Mandates: Bihar Chief Minister Nitish Kumar laid foundation stones for multiple road and bridge development projects worth ₹574.16 crore and distributed welfare support to self-help groups.
• Objectives: To strengthen transportation infrastructure in Muzaffarpur district and enhance social welfare by supporting self-help groups and interacting with pension beneficiaries.

Important Terms Explained:

• Rail Overbridge (ROB): A bridge built to eliminate level crossings and enhance traffic safety by separating road and rail lines.
• Self-Help Groups (SHGs): Community-based groups often consisting of women, aimed at fostering financial independence and social support through small loans, savings, and mutual aid.
• Social Security Pension Scheme: A welfare initiative to provide financial assistance to senior citizens, widows, and persons with disabilities.

Tabular Summary:

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25. How much amount has the Centre approved for landslide mitigation in Uttarakhand as of August 2025?
A) ₹75 crore
B) ₹100 crore
C) ₹110 crore
D) ₹125 crore
E) ₹150 crore
Answer: D) ₹125 crore

Event and Location:

• Event: Central government approves ₹125 crore project for landslide mitigation
• Location: Uttarakhand, India (5 high-risk sites)
• Date: August 1, 2025

Mandates and Objectives:

• Mandates: The Government of India has approved a ₹125 crore project for landslide mitigation in Uttarakhand, releasing ₹4.5 crore as the first installment.
• Objectives: To provide long-term, structural solutions to recurring landslides in five high-risk areas through scientific planning, exploration, and mitigation efforts.

Important Terms Explained:

• Landslide Mitigation: A process involving structural and non-structural measures to reduce landslide risks and ensure slope stability in vulnerable zones.
• State Disaster Management Authority (SDMA): A state-level institution responsible for formulating disaster risk reduction strategies and coordinating with national authorities.
• National Disaster Management Authority (NDMA): Apex federal agency under the Ministry of Home Affairs, responsible for disaster risk management across India.

Tabular Summary:

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26. How much has the Delhi government allocated under the newly created Chief Minister’s Development Fund (CMDF) for local infrastructure projects?
A) ₹800 crore
B) ₹1,000 crore
C) ₹1,200 crore
D) ₹1,400 crore
E) ₹1,600 crore
Answer: D) ₹1,400 crore

Event and Location:

• Event: Launch of ₹1,400 crore Chief Minister’s Development Fund (CMDF) and reforms to fast-track infrastructure
• Location: Delhi, India
• Date: August 1, 2025

Mandates and Objectives:

• Mandates: Delhi CM Rekha Gupta announced the creation of ₹1,400 crore CMDF, implementation of DSR 2023, expanded powers for the municipal corporation, and reforms to the MLA Fund Scheme for faster infrastructure development.
• Objectives: To fast-track stalled and delayed local infrastructure projects, bring financial transparency, improve payment mechanisms for contractors, and attract larger companies to participate in public works.

Important Terms Explained:

• Chief Minister’s Development Fund (CMDF): A state-level infrastructure funding mechanism allowing MLAs to draw up to ₹10 crore for local development projects in their constituencies.
• Delhi Schedule of Rates (DSR) 2023: A comprehensive document published by CPWD that standardizes unit costs for materials, labor, and services used in public construction projects.
• MLA Fund Scheme: A public development fund allocated to Members of Legislative Assembly to carry out minor infrastructure and welfare works in their constituencies.

Tabular Summary:

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Over All Review

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