Daily Current Affairs April 30

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April 30 | Daily Current Affairs 2025

Important Days – Daily Current Affairs April 30

1. When is International Jazz Day 2025 being celebrated globally to promote peace, diversity, and cultural dialogue through music?
A) March 21
B) April 15
C) April 22
D) April 30
E) May 1
Answer: D) April 30

Event and Location:

• Event: Celebration of International Jazz Day 2025
• Date: April 30, 2025
• Location: Celebrated globally with major events hosted by UNESCO and local organizations

Mandates and Objectives:

• Initiated By: UNESCO in 2011
• Key Supporter: Herbie Hancock, UNESCO Goodwill Ambassador for Intercultural Dialogue
• Core Purpose:
  • Promote jazz as a tool for peace, diversity, and freedom of expression
  • Encourage cross-cultural dialogue and mutual understanding
  • Celebrate the educational and transformative power of jazz
• Target Audience:
  • Youth, educators, musicians, communities worldwide
• Annual Activities:
  • Global concerts, workshops, panel discussions, music education initiatives
  • Events streamed online to promote inclusive global participation

Important Terms Explained:

• International Jazz Day: A UNESCO-recognized observance celebrated annually on April 30, recognizing jazz as a symbol of unity, peace, human rights, and innovation.
• Herbie Hancock: A world-renowned jazz pianist and composer, instrumental in advocating jazz as a tool for diplomacy and education through his work with UNESCO.
• Jazz Music: A musical genre that originated in early 20th-century America, deeply rooted in African-American culture, known for improvisation, rhythmic complexity, and emotional depth.
• UNESCO (United Nations Educational, Scientific and Cultural Organization): A UN agency focused on building peace through education, science, culture, and communication.

Tabular Summary:

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2. Who is celebrated as the Father of Indian Cinema, credited with making India’s first feature film, Raja Harishchandra, in 1913?
A) Satyajit Ray
B) Raj Kapoor
C) Dadasaheb Phalke
D) B.R. Chopra
E) V. Shantaram
Answer: C) Dadasaheb Phalke

Event and Location:

• Event: 155th Birth Anniversary of Dadasaheb Phalke, Father of Indian Cinema
• Date: April 30, 2025
• Location: India (celebrated nationwide, with key event in Delhi NCR)

Mandates and Objectives:

• Objective of Celebration: To honor the pioneering contribution of Dadasaheb Phalke to Indian cinema
• Festival Name: 15th Dadasaheb Phalke Film Festival
• Festival Location: Delhi NCR
• Festival Date: April 30, 2025
• Legacy Honored: Creation of India’s first full-length feature film, Raja Harishchandra (1913)
• Impact: Laid foundation for Indian film industry and inspired generations of filmmakers
• Award: Dadasaheb Phalke Award, instituted in 1969 by Government of India for lifetime contribution to cinema

Important Terms Explained:

• Dadasaheb Phalke: Dhundiraj Govind Phalke, known as the Father of Indian Cinema, born in 1870, who made India’s first feature film and established the country’s film narrative tradition.
• Raja Harishchandra (1913): India’s first full-length silent feature film, directed by Phalke, showcasing Indian mythology and produced against financial and societal odds.
• Dadasaheb Phalke Award: India’s highest cinematic honor, introduced in 1969 to recognize lifelong contributions to Indian cinema.
• Dadasaheb Phalke Film Festival: Annual film festival held to celebrate cinematic achievements and honor the legacy of Dadasaheb Phalke.
• Sir J.J. School of Art: Prestigious art institution in Mumbai where Phalke trained in fine arts before entering cinema.

Tabular Summary:

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Ranking – Daily Current Affairs April 30

3. Which organization released the World Social Report 2025, highlighting global inequality, job insecurity, and declining institutional trust?
A) UNDP and IMF
B) WHO and UN-Habitat
C) UN DESA and UNU-WIDER
D) World Bank and ILO
E) OECD and UNCTAD
Answer: C) UN DESA and UNU-WIDER

Event and Location:

• Event: Release of the World Social Report 2025
• Date: April 2025
• Location: United Nations Headquarters, New York (global release)

Mandates and Objectives:

• Published By: United Nations Department of Economic and Social Affairs (UN DESA) in collaboration with UNU-WIDER
• Purpose: To assess global social development trends and inform policy action toward achieving the Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs)
• Core Focus Areas:
  • Rising economic insecurity and income inequality
  • Employment vulnerability and lack of social protection
  • Erosion of trust in institutions and governance systems
  • Impact of climate disasters and conflicts on development
• Recommendations:
  • Rebuilding social contracts with investments in education, health, and work
  • Adopting fair taxation systems and progressive policies
  • Promoting institutional transparency and accountability
  • Advancing global cooperation via forums like the World Summit for Social Development 2025

Important Terms Explained:

• UN DESA: The United Nations Department of Economic and Social Affairs, responsible for advancing global development policy and compiling major analytical reports such as the World Social Report.
• UNU-WIDER: United Nations University World Institute for Development Economics Research; collaborates on research to address pressing global inequality and poverty issues.
• Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs): A universal set of 17 goals adopted by UN member states to end poverty, protect the planet, and ensure prosperity by 2030.
• Social Contract: The implicit agreement between government and citizens involving mutual rights and responsibilities; the report calls for a renewed emphasis on this model.
• Redistributive Taxation: A fiscal policy approach that aims to reduce inequality by taxing the wealthy more and investing in social services for the poor.

Tabular Summary:

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Banking and Finance – Daily Current Affairs April 30

4. Which monetary tool did RBI use to conduct the ₹20,000 crore market purchase, which received nearly double the bids from banks and dealers?
A) Statutory Liquidity Ratio
B) Repo Auction
C) Open Market Operations (OMO)
D) Marginal Standing Facility
E) Cash Reserve Ratio
Answer: C) Open Market Operations (OMO)

Event and Location:

• Event: RBI’s ₹20,000 crore Open Market Operations (OMO) bond purchase
• Date: April 30, 2025 (Reported), Auction held earlier that week
• Location: Mumbai, India

Mandates and Objectives:

• Conducted By: Reserve Bank of India (RBI)
• Operation Type: Open Market Operation (OMO) – purchase of government securities
• Purpose:
  • Manage liquidity in the banking system
  • Lower government bond yields
  • Support market demand for government securities
• OMO Size Notified: ₹20,000 crore
• Bids Received: ₹39,218 crore (Nearly double the notified amount)
• Key Focus: Bonds maturing in 4–6 years saw the most demand
• Price Impact: Bonds were priced at a premium to market with yields dropping by 5 basis points (bps)

Important Terms Explained:

• Open Market Operations (OMO): A monetary policy tool used by the RBI to buy or sell government securities in the open market to regulate money supply and interest rates.
• Government Bonds/Yields: Bonds issued by the central government to borrow funds; yields fall when demand for bonds increases.
• Held-to-Maturity (HTM): Bonds that banks hold until maturity; OMO announcements trigger the sale of such bonds by banks at favorable prices.
• Basis Points (bps): One basis point = 0.01%. A drop of 5 bps = 0.05% reduction in yield.

Tabular Summary:

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5. From which date has the Reserve Bank of India made it mandatory for all regulated entities to submit applications through the PRAVAAH portal?
A) April 1, 2024
B) May 28, 2024
C) April 29, 2025
D) May 1, 2025
E) June 1, 2025
Answer: D) May 1, 2025

Event and Location:

• Event: Mandatory implementation of PRAVAAH portal for regulatory applications
• Date: May 1, 2025 (effective date); May 28, 2024 (launch date)
• Location: India (applicable to all RBI-regulated entities nationwide)

Mandates and Objectives:

• Portal Name: PRAVAAH – Platform for Regulatory Application, Validation, and Authorization
• Launched By: Reserve Bank of India (RBI)
• Launch Date: May 28, 2024
• Mandatory Usage: Begins from May 1, 2025
• Objective:
  • Digitize and streamline submission of applications for various RBI approvals
  • Improve transparency, reduce manual processes, and enhance application tracking
• Covered Applications:
  • Licensing requests
  • Authorizations and regulatory approvals
• Entities Mandated to Use PRAVAAH:
  • Scheduled Commercial Banks (including Small Finance Banks, Local Area Banks, Regional Rural Banks)
  • Urban and State/Central Co-operative Banks
  • All-India Financial Institutions
  • NBFCs including Housing Finance Companies
  • Primary Dealers, Payment System Operators, Credit Information Companies
• Support Features:
  • User Manual, FAQs, and video tutorials
  • Application status tracking functionality
  • Over 4,000 applications processed since portal’s launch

Important Terms Explained:

• PRAVAAH Portal: A centralized, secure digital platform introduced by the RBI for regulated entities to submit and track applications for various regulatory approvals and authorizations.
• Reserve Bank of India (RBI): India’s central banking institution responsible for regulating the monetary system and financial institutions.
• Regulated Entities: Institutions under RBI’s supervision, including banks, NBFCs, payment operators, and cooperative institutions.
• Payment System Operators (PSOs): Entities authorized to operate payment systems such as UPI, NEFT, or e-wallets, regulated under the PSS Act, 2007.
• Credit Information Companies (CICs): Organizations licensed by the RBI to collect and maintain credit records of individuals and businesses, e.g., CIBIL.

Tabular Summary:

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6. Which service has India Post recently partnered with SBI Mutual Fund to offer across its nationwide network?
A) Mutual fund account opening assistance
B) Financial literacy workshops
C) Doorstep KYC verification for mutual fund investors
D) Postal insurance investment consultations
E) Online trading portal development
Answer: C) Doorstep KYC verification for mutual fund investors

Event and Location:

• Event: Partnership between India Post and SBI Mutual Fund to offer doorstep KYC verification
• Date: April 2025
• Location: Dak Bhawan, New Delhi (MoU signing)

Mandates and Objectives:

• Partnership Between:
  • Department of Posts (India Post)
  • SBI Funds Management Limited (SBIFM)
• MoU Representatives:
  • Ms. Manisha Bansal Badal, GM, Business Development, DoP
  • Mr. Munish Sabharwal, SVP, SBI Funds Management Ltd.
• Primary Objective:
  • Enable doorstep KYC verification for mutual fund investors
  • Expand financial inclusion and mutual fund penetration in rural and remote areas
• Key Functions of India Post:
  • Use of its 1.64 lakh+ post office network
  • Door-to-door collection of KYC documents
  • Trained postal staff ensuring accuracy, compliance, and privacy
• Beneficiaries:
  • Senior citizens
  • Persons with mobility issues
  • Rural and underserved populations
• Policy Alignment:
  • Supports Jan Nivesh and Digital India initiatives
  • Aims to increase capital market participation and boost financial literacy

Important Terms Explained:

• KYC (Know Your Customer): A mandatory process for verifying the identity and address of clients before investment onboarding, as per SEBI and RBI norms.
• SBI Funds Management Ltd. (SBIFM): One of India’s leading mutual fund houses and a joint venture between SBI and AMUNDI Asset Management, France.
• Jan Nivesh: A government-supported campaign to encourage small investors, particularly in rural areas, to participate in formal financial instruments.
• Digital India: A flagship government initiative launched in 2015 to promote digital access and empowerment through technology-driven services.

Tabular Summary:

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Business and Economy – Daily Current Affairs April 30

7. By what percentage did CSR spending by listed Indian companies increase in FY 2023–24 compared to the previous year?
A) 10%
B) 12%
C) 16%
D) 20%
E) 25%
Answer: C) 16%

Event and Location:

• Event: Rise in Corporate Social Responsibility (CSR) spending in FY 2023–24
• Date: FY 2023–24 (Reported in April 2025)
• Location: India (based on listed Indian companies’ disclosures)

Mandates and Objectives:

• CSR Law Effective Since: April 2014 under the Companies Act, 2013
• Mandatory CSR Applicability:
  • Net worth ≥ ₹500 crore
  • Turnover ≥ ₹1,000 crore
  • Net profit ≥ ₹5 crore
• CSR Spending Requirement: Minimum 2% of average net profit of the preceding three financial years
• Objective of CSR Law:
  • Promote responsible corporate citizenship
  • Mandate participation in social, environmental, and developmental projects
• FY 2023–24 CSR Highlights:
  • Total CSR Spending: ₹17,967 crore (↑ 16% from ₹15,524 crore in FY 2022–23)
  • Companies Considered: 1,394
  • Companies That Spent: 1,367 (98%)
  • Companies That Didn’t Spend: 27
  • Required Spend: ₹18,309 crore
  • Unspent Transferred to CSR Account: ₹2,329 crore

Important Terms Explained:

• Corporate Social Responsibility (CSR): A statutory requirement for qualifying companies in India to contribute a portion of their profits to social welfare, mandated under Section 135 of the Companies Act, 2013.
• Unspent CSR Account: As per the CSR Rules, unspent amounts must be transferred to a designated account and utilized within a defined timeframe or transferred to a specified fund.
• Environmental Sustainability: One of the fastest-growing sectors for CSR in FY 2023–24, receiving sharply increased funding due to climate and ecological concerns.

Tabular Summary:

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8. What is the estimated valuation of Canara HSBC Life Insurance for its upcoming IPO, based on its latest embedded value?
A) ₹10,000 crore
B) ₹12,000 crore
C) ₹15,000 crore
D) ₹16,500 crore
E) ₹18,000 crore
Answer: D) ₹16,500 crore

Event and Location:

• Event: Filing of IPO draft papers by Canara HSBC Life Insurance
• Date: Reported in April 2025
• Location: Mumbai, India

Mandates and Objectives:

• Company Filing IPO: Canara HSBC Life Insurance
• Filed With: Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI)
• IPO Type: Offer for sale (OFS) – No fresh issue of shares
• Total Shares for Sale: 237.5 million
  • Canara Bank: Selling 137.75 million shares (major stake)
  • HSBC Insurance (Asia-Pacific): 4.75 million shares
  • Punjab National Bank: 95 million shares
• Expected Valuation: Around ₹16,500 crore
• Embedded Value (EV): ₹5,929 crore
• Assumed P/EV Multiple: 2.75x
• Estimated Proceeds for Canara Bank: Around ₹2,200 crore for the 14% stake
• Sector Trend:
  • Falling P/EV multiples: HDFC Life’s multiple dropped from 4x to 2.76x
  • General decline in valuation benchmarks for listed insurers

Important Terms Explained:

• IPO (Initial Public Offering): A process by which a private company offers shares to the public for the first time to raise capital or allow existing shareholders to exit.
• Offer for Sale (OFS): A type of IPO where existing shareholders sell their shares—no new capital is raised.
• Embedded Value (EV): A life insurance metric representing the sum of adjusted net asset value and present value of future profits.
• P/EV Multiple: Price-to-Embedded Value ratio, a valuation method specific to insurance firms.
• Annualised Premium Equivalent (APE): A metric that normalises premium revenue for comparison.
• Value of New Business (VNB): The expected profit from new policies written during a period.

Tabular Summary:

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Appointments – Daily Current Affairs April 30

9. Who has been appointed as the 52nd Chief Justice of India, becoming the second person from the Scheduled Caste community to hold this post?
A) Justice K.G. Balakrishnan
B) Justice Sanjiv Khanna
C) Justice D.Y. Chandrachud
D) Justice B.R. Gavai
E) Justice U.U. Lalit
Answer: D) Justice B.R. Gavai

Event and Location:

• Event: Appointment of the 52nd Chief Justice of India
• Date: April 30, 2025 (appointment); May 14, 2025 (oath-taking)
• Location: India (Rashtrapati Bhavan, New Delhi)

Mandates and Objectives:

• Appointed As: 52nd Chief Justice of India (CJI)
• Appointed By: President Droupadi Murmu
• Oath-Taking Date: May 14, 2025
• Retirement Date: November 23, 2025 (on attaining age of 65)
• Predecessor: Justice Sanjiv Khanna
• Judicial Representation: Second person from the Scheduled Caste (SC) community to hold the CJI post after Justice K.G. Balakrishnan
• Key Purpose: Uphold constitutional justice and lead the Indian judiciary as the senior-most judge of the Supreme Court
• Appointment Procedure (MoP): Involves consultation between Law Minister and outgoing CJI, with seniority being a key criterion

Important Terms Explained:

• Chief Justice of India (CJI): The highest-ranking judge in the Indian judiciary system who heads the Supreme Court and oversees the functioning of all courts in the country.
• Scheduled Caste (SC): Constitutionally recognized communities historically subjected to discrimination; eligible for affirmative action to ensure representation.
• Memorandum of Procedure (MoP): An established framework guiding the appointment of Supreme Court judges and the Chief Justice, involving consultation and seniority norms.
• Article 370 Verdict: Justice Gavai was part of the 5-judge bench that upheld the abrogation of Article 370, removing Jammu & Kashmir’s special status.
• Electoral Bonds Scheme: Justice Gavai contributed to the verdict that struck down this scheme as unconstitutional.
• Demolition Ruling: Issued a landmark judgment requiring a 15-day notice and response period before demolition, ensuring due process.
• SC Sub-classification: Part of a 7-judge bench that allowed sub-categorisation within SCs for equitable reservation benefits.

Tabular Summary:

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10. Who has been appointed as the new Chief Electoral Officer (CEO) of Bihar ahead of the 2025 Assembly elections?
A) H R Srinivas
B) Sanjay Kumar
C) Vinod Kumar Gunjiyal
D) Rajesh Bhushan
E) Ashok Lavasa
Answer: C) Vinod Kumar Gunjiyal

Event and Location:

• Event: Appointment of new Chief Electoral Officer (CEO) of Bihar
• Date: April 30, 2025
• Location: Bihar, India

Mandates and Objectives:

• Position Appointed: Chief Electoral Officer (CEO) of Bihar
• Appointed By: Election Commission of India
• Replaces: H R Srinivas, a 1996-batch IAS officer
• Objective: To oversee transparent, impartial, and efficient conduct of Bihar Assembly Elections scheduled for October–November 2025
• Role of CEO:
  • Coordinate with the Election Commission of India (ECI) and state machinery
  • Supervise all electoral processes including voter list management, polling arrangements, and Model Code of Conduct enforcement
  • Ensure inclusive, fair participation from all political stakeholders

Important Terms Explained:

• Chief Electoral Officer (CEO): A senior IAS officer appointed by the Election Commission of India in every state to administer and monitor all election-related activities, especially during Assembly and Lok Sabha polls.
• Election Commission of India (ECI): A constitutional authority under Article 324 responsible for conducting free and fair elections in India.
• Super Time Scale: A senior administrative grade conferred upon experienced IAS officers, typically with over 16 years of service.
• Model Code of Conduct (MCC): A set of guidelines issued by the ECI to ensure free and fair elections by regulating the behavior of political parties and candidates.

Tabular Summary:

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Science and Technology – Daily Current Affairs April 30

11. Who is set to become the first Indian astronaut to visit the International Space Station (ISS) as part of Axiom Mission 4 in May 2025?
A) Rakesh Sharma
B) Sunita Williams
C) Shubhanshu Shukla
D) Kalpana Chawla
E) Raja Chari
Answer: C) Shubhanshu Shukla

Event and Location:

• Event: Launch of Group Captain Shubhanshu Shukla to the International Space Station (ISS)
• Date: May 29, 2025
• Location: NASA Kennedy Space Center, Florida, USA

Mandates and Objectives:

• Mission Name: Axiom Mission 4 (Ax-4)
• Launch Vehicle: SpaceX Dragon
• Mission Duration: Up to 14 days aboard the International Space Station (ISS)
• Indian Representation: Group Captain Shubhanshu Shukla becomes first Indian to visit ISS and first Indian in space since Rakesh Sharma (1984)
• International Crew: Includes astronauts from USA, Poland, and Hungary
• Scientific Objective: Conduct ~60 scientific experiments, including 7 Indian microgravity studies
• Indian Experiment Focus:
  • Microalgae and cyanobacteria growth
  • Muscle regeneration
  • Sprouting of food crops (moong, fenugreek)
  • Tardigrade survival
  • Human-computer interaction (HCI) in space
• Institutional Involvement: Projects selected by ISRO, involving Indian national labs and academic institutions
• Strategic Importance: Strengthens India’s position in global space collaboration and supports goals of ISRO’s Gaganyaan mission

Important Terms Explained:

• Axiom Mission 4 (Ax-4): A commercial space mission led by Axiom Space, in collaboration with NASA and SpaceX, sending private astronauts to the ISS for research and outreach.
• SpaceX Dragon: A reusable crewed spacecraft developed by SpaceX, responsible for transporting astronauts to and from the ISS.
• International Space Station (ISS): A habitable space laboratory orbiting Earth, enabling microgravity research and international collaboration.
• Gaganyaan Mission: India’s maiden human spaceflight mission, led by ISRO, aimed at sending Indian astronauts to space independently.
• Tardigrades: Micro-animals known for their extreme survival capabilities, studied for space resilience.
• Human-Computer Interaction (HCI): Study of how humans interact with digital systems—critical in autonomous operations in space.

Tabular Summary:

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12. Which company officially entered the satellite broadband market on April 28, 2025, by launching the first batch of satellites for Project Kuiper?
A) Google
B) Microsoft
C) Amazon
D) Apple
E) Meta
Answer: C) Amazon

Event and Location:

• Event: Launch of first operational satellites for Project Kuiper
• Date: April 28, 2025
• Location: Cape Canaveral Space Force Station, Florida, USA

Mandates and Objectives:

• Total Planned Satellites: 3,236 in Low Earth Orbit (LEO)
• Initial Launch Count: 27 satellites
• FCC Mandate: At least 1,618 satellites must be deployed by mid-2026
• Purpose: Provide broadband internet globally, focusing on underserved and rural areas
• Market Competition: Compete with SpaceX’s Starlink and traditional telecom companies
• Launch Vehicle: Atlas V rocket by United Launch Alliance (ULA)
• Technology Focus: Integration with Amazon Web Services (AWS)
• User Equipment Plan: Multiple terminal sizes with cost under $400
• Expansion Plan: Up to five more launches expected in 2025

Important Terms Explained:

• Project Kuiper: Amazon’s $10 billion satellite broadband initiative aiming to connect rural and remote regions using over 3,200 LEO satellites.
• Low Earth Orbit (LEO): Satellite orbit ranging between 160 km to 2,000 km, offering low-latency broadband connectivity.
• Starlink: Satellite internet constellation by SpaceX, currently leading the market with over 8,000 satellites and more than 5 million users.
• Atlas V Rocket: A launch vehicle developed by United Launch Alliance (ULA), used for both civilian and defense space launches.
• Amazon Web Services (AWS): Amazon’s cloud computing platform, integrated with Project Kuiper to offer enterprise-level connectivity.

Tabular Summary:

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National Affairs – Daily Current Affairs April 30

13. Which certification scheme was launched by MNRE on April 29, 2025, to ensure transparent and credible green hydrogen production in India?
A) National Hydrogen Energy Roadmap
B) Green Hydrogen Mission Tracker
C) Hydrogen Supply Chain Index
D) Green Hydrogen Certification Scheme (GHCI)
E) Renewable Hydrogen Regulation Act
Answer: D) Green Hydrogen Certification Scheme (GHCI)

Event and Location:

• Event: Launch of Green Hydrogen Certification Scheme (GHCI) and National Workshop on MSMEs in Green Hydrogen
• Date: April 29, 2025
• Location: New Delhi, India

Mandates and Objectives:

• Launched By: Ministry of New and Renewable Energy (MNRE)
• Launched During: National Workshop on Opportunities for MSMEs in the Green Hydrogen Supply Chain
• Scheme Name: Green Hydrogen Certification Scheme of India (GHCI)
• Launched By (Minister): Pralhad Joshi, Union Minister
• Main Objective:
  • Certify green hydrogen production for transparency, traceability, and market trust
  • Support India’s National Green Hydrogen Mission (NGHM) goals
  • Empower MSMEs to become key players in the hydrogen value chain
• Key Mission Targets by 2030 (NGHM):
  • 5 MMT of green hydrogen production
  • 125 GW of renewable energy capacity
  • ₹8 lakh crore in investments
  • Creation of 6 lakh green jobs
• Workshop Focus:
  • Business models for MSMEs in the green hydrogen sector
  • Opportunities in component manufacturing, rural hydrogen generation, O&M services
  • Promotion of hydrogen clusters, standard protocols, and policy stability
• De-risking Tools Introduced:
  • Blended finance options
  • Green credit lines for MSMEs
• Institutional Participation: World Bank, IREDA, KfW, IIFCL, and industry associations

Important Terms Explained:

• Green Hydrogen Certification Scheme (GHCI): A government-led initiative to certify hydrogen produced through renewable energy sources, ensuring it meets environmental and market standards.
• National Green Hydrogen Mission (NGHM): India’s strategic mission launched to make the country a global hub for green hydrogen, aimed at decarbonizing hard-to-abate sectors.
• MSMEs (Micro, Small & Medium Enterprises): Backbone of India’s industrial ecosystem, now being integrated into the clean energy supply chain under MNRE initiatives.
• Blended Finance: Financing method that combines public or philanthropic funding with private sector investment to reduce project risks.
• IREDA (Indian Renewable Energy Development Agency): A government agency under MNRE that promotes, develops, and extends financial assistance for renewable energy projects.

Tabular Summary:

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14. Which Indian Urban Local Body (ULB) became the first to issue a Certified Green Municipal Bond to fund a Tertiary Sewage Treatment Plant (TSTP)?
A) Pune Municipal Corporation
B) Surat Municipal Corporation
C) Lucknow Municipal Corporation
D) Ghaziabad Nagar Nigam
E) Bhopal Nagar Nigam
Answer: D) Ghaziabad Nagar Nigam

Event and Location:

• Event: Issuance of India’s first Certified Green Municipal Bond for sustainable water treatment
• Date: April 2025
• Location: Ghaziabad, Uttar Pradesh, India

Mandates and Objectives:

• Issued By: Ghaziabad Nagar Nigam (GNN)
• Bond Type: Certified Green Municipal Bond – a financial instrument to fund environment-friendly urban infrastructure
• Amount Raised: ₹150 crore
• Primary Purpose: Finance a Tertiary Sewage Treatment Plant (TSTP) under Swachh Bharat Mission–Urban
• Treatment Plant Capacity: 40 Million Litres per Day (MLD)
• Water Supply Goal: Treated water supply to 1,400+ industrial units via a 95 km pipeline; 9.5 MLD contracted to 800+ firms
• Funding Model: Developed under Public-Private Partnership – Hybrid Annuity Model (PPP-HAM)
  • 40% project funding from GNN
  • Emphasis on financial discipline and investor confidence
• Technology Used:
  • Microfiltration
  • Ultrafiltration
  • Nanofiltration
  • Reverse Osmosis (RO)
• Partnership Support: Government of India and Government of Uttar Pradesh
• Recognition: Received Best Municipal Treated Water Reuse Award (Water Digest World Water Awards 2024–25)

Important Terms Explained:

• Certified Green Municipal Bond: A debt instrument issued by Urban Local Bodies to fund environmentally sustainable infrastructure, verified through a certification process to ensure climate-positive impact.
• Tertiary Sewage Treatment Plant (TSTP): An advanced wastewater treatment facility using multi-stage filtration technologies to deliver industrial-grade treated water.
• PPP-HAM (Hybrid Annuity Model): A hybrid funding model combining government support and private investment, where 40% of project cost is paid during construction and 60% over time through annuities.
• Swachh Bharat Mission–Urban: A flagship national mission to enhance sanitation, cleanliness, and environmental management in urban areas.
• Reverse Osmosis (RO): A filtration method that removes contaminants from water by using pressure to force it through a semipermeable membrane.

Tabular Summary:

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15. Under which mission has the Government of India issued guidelines for setting up Bio-input Resource Centres (BRCs) to support natural farming practices?
A) National Agro-Ecology Mission
B) Soil Health and Safety Mission
C) National Mission on Edible Oilseeds
D) National Mission on Natural Farming (NMNF)
E) Integrated Organic Farming Scheme
Answer: D) National Mission on Natural Farming (NMNF)

Event and Location:

• Event: Issuance of guidelines for establishing Bio-input Resource Centres (BRCs)
• Date: April 23, 2025
• Location: India (Nationwide, under Ministry of Agriculture)

Mandates and Objectives:

• Mission Name: National Mission on Natural Farming (NMNF)
• Launched: November 2024
• Implemented By: Union Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers’ Welfare
• Primary Objective:
  • Promote natural farming practices
  • Reduce dependence on chemical fertilizers and pesticides
  • Supply bio-inputs, knowledge, and support to farming communities
• Target:
  • Set up 10,000 Bio-resource Centres (BRCs) at cluster level
• Functions of BRCs:
  • Produce and supply natural bio-inputs
  • Provide training, technical assistance, and best practices dissemination
  • Facilitate local input customization based on soil and crop requirements

Important Terms Explained:

• Bio-input Resource Centres (BRCs): Units set up to support farmers with low-cost, natural agricultural inputs like compost, cow dung, fermented plant extracts, and provide guidance on non-chemical farming methods.
• National Mission on Natural Farming (NMNF): A centrally-sponsored scheme focused on promoting chemical-free farming, enhancing soil health, and supporting ecosystem-based agriculture.
• Cluster-level Approach: Decentralized model that ensures bio-inputs are locally produced, tailored to the region’s specific agro-ecological conditions.
• FPO (Farmer Producer Organisation): Collectives of farmers that promote scale efficiencies in production and marketing; encouraged under NMNF to run BRCs.

Tabular Summary:

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16. Which draft rules did India’s Ministry of Environment notify in April 2025 to reduce emissions intensity in key industries and support the carbon credit market?
A) National Clean Energy Compliance Rules, 2025
B) Industrial Emissions Reduction Mandate, 2025
C) Emission Trading Mechanism Rules, 2025
D) Greenhouse Gases Emissions Intensity (GEI) Target Rules, 2025
E) Carbon Abatement Standards Rules, 2025
Answer: D) Greenhouse Gases Emissions Intensity (GEI) Target Rules, 2025

Event and Location:

• Event: Notification of Greenhouse Gases Emissions Intensity (GEI) Target Rules, 2025 (Draft)
• Date: April 16, 2025
• Location: India (Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change – MoEFCC)

Mandates and Objectives:

• Issued By: Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MoEFCC)
• Objective:
  • Reduce GHG emissions intensity of output across key industrial sectors
  • Align India’s efforts with its Paris Agreement commitment to reduce emissions intensity of GDP by 45% by 2030 (compared to 2005 levels)
• Key Mechanism:
  • Operationalize the Carbon Credit Trading Scheme (CCTS), 2023
  • Encourage low-carbon industrial growth through performance-based targets and market-based incentives
• Open Feedback Period: 60 days from notification date
• Base Year for Target Setting: FY 2023–24
• Target Years: FY 2025–26 and 2026–27

Important Terms Explained:

• Greenhouse Gases Emissions Intensity (GEI): The volume of GHG emissions per unit of output, such as per tonne of cement; measured in tCO₂e (tonnes of CO₂ equivalent) including gases like CO₂, CH₄, N₂O, CFCs, HCFCs.
• Carbon Credit Trading Scheme (CCTS), 2023: A market-based mechanism allowing companies to earn and trade carbon credits for emissions reductions beyond their targets; designed to financially incentivize decarbonization.
• Carbon Market Oversight: Managed by the Bureau of Energy Efficiency (BEE) under the Ministry of Power; enforcement handled by Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB).
• Paris Agreement: A global climate treaty adopted in 2015 aimed at limiting global warming to well below 2°C, with India pledging to reduce the emissions intensity of GDP by 45% by 2030.

Tabular Summary:

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17. What recent electoral reform suggestion did the Supreme Court make regarding unopposed election victories?
A) Make voting mandatory in all constituencies
B) Abolish NOTA in unopposed elections
C) Impose a financial penalty on unopposed winners
D) Require minimum vote share for unopposed candidates
E) Reserve seats for unopposed candidates
Answer: D) Require minimum vote share for unopposed candidates

Event and Location:

• Event: Supreme Court suggestion on electoral reform regarding unopposed election wins
• Date: April 2025 (hearing in response to a PIL)
• Location: Supreme Court of India, New Delhi

Mandates and Objectives:

• Case Trigger: A Public Interest Litigation (PIL) filed in August 2024 by the Vidhi Centre for Legal Policy
• Law Challenged: Section 53(2) of the Representation of the People Act, 1951
• Core Argument: Declaring candidates elected unopposed denies voters the right to express dissent via NOTA (None of the Above), violating Article 19(1)(a) of the Constitution
• Supreme Court Suggestion:
  • Introduce a minimum vote threshold (10–15%) even for unopposed candidates
  • Emphasized that democracy requires affirmative voter participation, not default wins
  • Urged Parliament to consider amending the law
• Legal Basis:
  • Referenced the 2013 PUCL judgment, where the Supreme Court upheld the NOTA option under freedom of expression
• Objective:
  • Enhance democratic legitimacy
  • Ensure minimum electoral consent, even in absence of opposition

Important Terms Explained:

• Section 53(2), Representation of the People Act, 1951: A legal provision allowing candidates to be declared elected unopposed without conducting any polling.
• NOTA (None of the Above): A voting option introduced by the Supreme Court in 2013 (PUCL judgment) allowing voters to reject all candidates while still participating in the electoral process.
• Article 19(1)(a): Guarantees freedom of speech and expression to all citizens, forming the basis for the argument that denial of NOTA restricts voter rights.
• Unopposed Election: A scenario where only one candidate remains in the fray after withdrawals and is declared elected without voting.

Tabular Summary:

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Over All Review

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