Daily Current Affairs July 09

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Current affairs are the most dynamic yet scoring among all sections and need to be prepared from the right source. Here, we cafunsta team, providing Daily GK Updates, Current Affairs Questions, and Monthly current affairs pdf.

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July 09 | Daily Current Affairs 2026

Ranking – Daily Current Affairs July 09

1. Which Indian institution will lead the conservation and restoration project at the Prambanan Temple Complex in Indonesia?
A) National Museum of India
B) Archaeological Survey of India
C) Indian Council for Cultural Relations
D) Indira Gandhi National Centre for the Arts
E) National Archives of India
Answer: B) Archaeological Survey of India.

Event and Location:

• Event: Prime Minister Narendra Modi visited the Prambanan Temple Complex and launched an Archaeological Survey of India-led conservation and restoration project.
• Location: The Prambanan Temple Complex is located in Sleman Regency, Yogyakarta, on the island of Java in Indonesia.
• Date: The visit and unveiling of the commemorative plaque took place on 8 July 2026.

Mandates and Objectives:

• Mandates: The Archaeological Survey of India will undertake conservation and restoration work at the Prambanan Temple Complex following an understanding reached between India and Indonesia in 2025.
• Objectives: The initiative aims to preserve the UNESCO-listed monument, protect shared civilizational heritage, and strengthen cultural cooperation between India and Indonesia.

Important Terms Explained:

• Prambanan Temple Complex: It is Indonesia’s largest Hindu temple complex, constructed during the 9th century and dedicated primarily to the Hindu Trimurti.
• UNESCO World Heritage Site: It is a place recognised by UNESCO for its outstanding cultural or natural value to humanity.
• Hindu Trimurti: It refers to the three principal Hindu deities—Brahma, Vishnu, and Shiva—representing creation, preservation, and transformation.
• Roro Jonggrang: It is the local name associated with the Prambanan Temple Complex and means the Temple of the Slender Virgin.

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2. What rank did Jaipur secure in the Happy City Index 2026?
A) 4th
B) 5th
C) 6th
D) 7th
E) 8th
Answer: C) 6th.

Event and Location:

• Event: Jaipur ranked sixth globally and emerged as the highest-ranked Indian city in the Happy City Index 2026.
• Location: Jaipur, Rajasthan, India.
• Date: The ranking was reported on 9 July 2026.

Mandates and Objectives:

• Mandates: The Happy City Index assessed cities on parameters including governance, health, environment, mobility, economy, infrastructure, and overall well-being.
• Objectives: The index aims to evaluate urban quality of life and recognise cities that balance economic development, public services, sustainability, cultural identity, and citizen well-being.

Important Terms Explained:

• Happy City Index: It is a global urban assessment that evaluates cities on factors such as governance, healthcare, environment, transport, economy, and quality of life.
• Urban Well-Being: It refers to the overall quality of life experienced by city residents, including access to services, safety, mobility, economic opportunities, and a healthy environment.
• Smart City Projects: These are technology-enabled urban development initiatives designed to improve infrastructure, public services, mobility, sustainability, and civic administration.
• Cultural Heritage: It includes historically significant monuments, traditions, arts, festivals, and practices that contribute to a city’s identity and community pride.

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Banking and Finance – Daily Current Affairs July 09

3. What is the enhanced auto-settlement limit for eligible claims under the EPFO 3.0 reforms?
A) ₹1 lakh
B) ₹2 lakh
C) ₹3 lakh
D) ₹4 lakh
E) ₹5 lakh
Answer: E) ₹5 lakh.

Event and Location:

• Event: The Employees’ Provident Fund Organisation introduced revised EPF withdrawal provisions under EPFO 3.0 to simplify categories, accelerate claim settlement, and expand digital processing.
• Location: The revised withdrawal framework applies to eligible EPF members across India.
• Date: The new EPF withdrawal rules were reported on 9 July 2026.

Mandates and Objectives:

• Mandates: Eligible online advance claims with Aadhaar-linked and verified KYC will be processed within three working days, while members in employment must retain at least 25% of their EPF balance.
• Objectives: The reforms aim to provide faster access to provident fund savings, reduce paperwork, simplify withdrawal categories, expand automatic claim processing, and protect a portion of members’ retirement savings.

Important Terms Explained:

• Employees’ Provident Fund: It is a retirement savings arrangement under which eligible employees and employers make regular contributions to a provident fund account.
• Auto-Settlement: It is a digital claim-processing mechanism under which eligible claims are approved without manual verification, subject to prescribed conditions.
• Universal Account Number: It is a unique number allotted to an EPF member for accessing and managing provident fund accounts and online services.
• Know Your Customer: It is the verification process involving Aadhaar, PAN, and bank account details to authenticate a member’s identity and enable online claims.

Tabular Summary:

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4. What interest rate will be credited to EPF accounts for FY2025–26 under the CITES 2.01 rollout?
A) 7.75%
B) 8.00%
C) 8.15%
D) 8.25%
E) 8.50%
Answer: D) 8.25%.

Event and Location:

• Event: The Employees’ Provident Fund Organisation launched the upgraded Centralised IT Enabled Services 2.01 platform and announced the credit of FY2025–26 EPF interest.
• Location: The platform has been launched for EPFO members across India.
• Date: The FY2025–26 EPF interest is expected to be credited by 15 July 2026.

Mandates and Objectives:

• Mandates: The platform will consolidate nearly 340 million member accounts from more than 120 decentralised databases into a unified national system and enable centralised claim processing, account access, automated validation, and electronic payments.
• Objectives: The initiative aims to accelerate claim settlement, improve transparency, reduce claim rejections, simplify access to provident fund records, and modernise EPFO’s digital infrastructure.

Important Terms Explained:

• Centralised IT Enabled Services 2.01: It is EPFO’s upgraded digital platform that integrates member records and services into a single nationwide database.
• Auto-Settlement: It is an automated claim-processing mechanism that settles eligible advance claims without extensive manual verification.
• KYC Compliance: It refers to the verification of a member’s identity and financial details through records such as Aadhaar, PAN, and bank account information.
• UPI-Based Withdrawal: It is a proposed facility that will allow eligible members to receive provident fund withdrawals through the Unified Payments Interface.

Tabular Summary:

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Business and Economy – Daily Current Affairs July 09

5. What is the IMF’s revised GDP growth forecast for India in FY2026-27?
A) 6.2%
B) 6.3%
C) 6.4%
D) 6.5%
E) 6.7%
Answer: C) 6.4%.

Event and Location:

• Event: The International Monetary Fund reduced India’s FY2026-27 GDP growth forecast to 6.4% from its earlier estimate of 6.5%.
• Location: The revision applies to India and was published in the IMF’s global economic outlook update.
• Date: The revised projection was released in the July 2026 update of the World Economic Outlook.

Mandates and Objectives:

• Mandates: The IMF revised India’s near-term growth outlook after assessing domestic consumption, services-sector activity, global oil prices, imported energy costs, and geopolitical risks.
• Objectives: The forecast update aims to present revised estimates of India’s economic growth and assess the impact of higher energy and commodity prices on the economy.

Important Terms Explained:

• World Economic Outlook: It is the IMF’s periodic report containing global and country-specific projections for economic growth, inflation, trade, and other major indicators.
• Gross Domestic Product: It is the total monetary value of final goods and services produced within a country during a specified period.
• Energy Price Shock: It refers to a sharp increase in oil, gas, or electricity prices that raises production, transport, and import costs across the economy.
• Private Consumption: It represents household spending on goods and services and is an important driver of economic growth.

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Appointments – Daily Current Affairs July 09

6. Who has been approved by the Reserve Bank of India as the next Managing Director and Chief Executive Officer of South Indian Bank?
A) P R Seshadri
B) Mahesh Muralidhar Pai
C) K Satyanarayana Raju
D) Ashwani Kumar
E) Atul Kumar Goel
Answer: B) Mahesh Muralidhar Pai.

Event and Location:

• Event: The Reserve Bank of India approved the appointment of Mahesh Muralidhar Pai as the Managing Director and Chief Executive Officer of South Indian Bank for a three-year term.
• Location: South Indian Bank is headquartered in Thrissur, Kerala.
• Date: His three-year term will begin on 1 October 2026.

Mandates and Objectives:

• Mandates: The appointment will be placed before the bank’s Board of Directors on 16 July 2026 and will subsequently require shareholder approval before Mahesh Pai assumes office.
• Objectives: The appointment aims to provide experienced leadership to South Indian Bank and support its digital banking, innovation, governance, strategy, and business growth initiatives.

Important Terms Explained:

• Managing Director and Chief Executive Officer: It is the senior-most executive position responsible for managing a bank’s operations, strategy, governance, and overall performance.
• Digital Banking: It refers to the delivery of banking products and services through online platforms, mobile applications, and technology-enabled channels.
• FIMMDA: The Fixed Income Money Market and Derivatives Association of India is an industry body associated with debt markets, money markets, and derivatives.
• SWIFT India: It provides secure financial messaging services that support communication and transaction processing among banks and financial institutions.

Tabular Summary:

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Awards – Daily Current Affairs July 09

7. Acharya Ranchhodlal Goswami was selected for the Ustad Bismillah Khan Yuva Puraskar 2025 for preserving which musical tradition?
A) Dhrupad
B) Khayal
C) Haveli Sangeet
D) Thumri
E) Tappa
Answer: C) Haveli Sangeet.

Event and Location:

• Event: Acharya Ranchhodlal Goswami was selected for the Ustad Bismillah Khan Yuva Puraskar 2025 for preserving and promoting Haveli Sangeet.
• Location: Acharya Ranchhodlal Goswami is associated with the historic Goswami Haveli in Ahmedabad, Gujarat.
• Date: His selection for the 2024–25 award cycle was announced on 9 July 2026.

Mandates and Objectives:

• Mandates: The Sangeet Natak Akademi selected Acharya Ranchhodlal Goswami in recognition of his contribution to devotional music, cultural preservation, composition, scholarship, and promotion of Haveli Sangeet.
• Objectives: The award aims to encourage young performing artists and support the preservation of India’s traditional music, dance, theatre, and cultural heritage.

Important Terms Explained:

• Haveli Sangeet: It is a devotional music tradition associated with the Pushtimarg sect and performed as part of daily worship, festivals, seasons, and temple rituals.
• Pushtimarg: It is a devotional tradition founded by Mahaprabhu Vallabhacharya and centred on loving service and worship of Lord Krishna.
• Seva-Kirtan: It refers to devotional compositions sung as an offering during different stages of daily worship in Pushtimarg temples.
• Ashtachhap Poets: They were eight devotional poets associated with the Pushtimarg tradition whose compositions, including those of Surdas and Parmananddas, remain central to Haveli Sangeet.

Tabular Summary:

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Science and Technology – Daily Current Affairs July 09

8. At which location did DRDO successfully flight-test the Pinaka Long Range Guided Rocket?
A) Pokhran
B) Chandipur
C) Sriharikota
D) Balasore Air Base
E) Mahajan Field Range
Answer: B) Chandipur.

Event and Location:

• Event: The Defence Research and Development Organisation successfully flight-tested the Pinaka Long Range Guided Rocket at a user-defined minimum range of 60 kilometres.
• Location: The test was conducted at the Integrated Test Range in Chandipur, Odisha.
• Date: The flight test was carried out on 8 July 2026.

Mandates and Objectives:

• Mandates: The test validated the rocket’s planned trajectory, in-flight manoeuvres, guidance, navigation, control systems, and precision-strike performance under operational conditions.
• Objectives: The programme aims to enhance the Indian Army’s long-range artillery capability, improve battlefield accuracy, strengthen standoff strike capacity, and reduce dependence on imported precision-guided systems.

Important Terms Explained:

• Pinaka Long Range Guided Rocket: It is a precision-guided artillery rocket developed to extend the range and accuracy of the Indian Army’s Pinaka multi-barrel rocket launcher system.
• Integrated Test Range: It is a DRDO testing facility at Chandipur used for evaluating missiles, rockets, and other defence systems under controlled conditions.
• Standoff Attack Capability: It refers to the ability to strike a target accurately from a distance while keeping the launching platform away from immediate enemy threats.
• Precision-Guided Munition: It is a weapon equipped with guidance technology to accurately engage specific targets and reduce collateral damage.

Tabular Summary:

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International Affairs – Daily Current Affairs July 09

9. Where will the Geneva AI Summit 2027 be held?
A) Zurich Convention Centre
B) Palexpo Geneva
C) United Nations Headquarters New York
D) Bletchley Park
E) Paris Expo Porte de Versailles
Answer: B) Palexpo Geneva.

Event and Location:

• Event: Switzerland announced the Geneva AI Summit 2027 as an international platform for discussions on artificial intelligence governance, innovation, safety, and responsible use.
• Location: Palexpo, Geneva, Switzerland.
• Date: The summit is scheduled for 21 and 22 June 2027.

Mandates and Objectives:

• Mandates: The summit will bring together governments, technology companies, researchers, international organisations, academic institutions, policymakers, and civil society representatives to discuss global artificial intelligence priorities.
• Objectives: The event aims to promote human-centred AI applications, strengthen international cooperation on AI governance, encourage responsible innovation, and develop safe, ethical, inclusive, and trustworthy AI systems.

Important Terms Explained:

• Geneva AI Summit 2027: It is a proposed global forum focused on artificial intelligence governance, innovation, international cooperation, and the responsible use of emerging technologies.
• AI for Good Global Summit: It is an international event associated with the International Telecommunication Union that promotes the use of artificial intelligence to address global development challenges.
• Trustworthy AI: It refers to artificial intelligence systems designed and deployed with safety, transparency, accountability, fairness, reliability, and respect for human rights.
• Human-Centred AI: It is an approach that places human welfare, dignity, inclusion, and societal benefit at the core of artificial intelligence design and deployment.

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Schemes – Daily Current Affairs July 09

10. How many rural agri-entrepreneurs are targeted for empowerment under the PRAGATI Project?
A) 5,000
B) 10,000
C) 15,000
D) 20,000
E) 25,000
Answer: D) 20,000.

Event and Location:

• Event: Union Minister Shivraj Singh Chouhan launched the PRAGATI Project to promote agri-entrepreneurship, regenerative farming, digital innovation, and value addition in Indian agriculture.
• Location: The initiative will initially cover Madhya Pradesh, Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, Maharashtra, Rajasthan, West Bengal, Assam, and Jharkhand.
• Date: The project was reported on 9 July 2026.

Mandates and Objectives:

• Mandates: The project will train rural youth as village-level agri-entrepreneurs who will provide soil testing, crop advisories, mechanisation services, financial literacy, institutional credit support, and market-linkage assistance to farmers.
• Objectives: The initiative aims to empower 20,000 rural agri-entrepreneurs, benefit 20 lakh small and marginal farmers, raise farm incomes, reduce cultivation costs, and promote climate-resilient agriculture.

Important Terms Explained:

• PRAGATI: It stands for Promoting Regenerative Agriculture, Growth, Agri-Entrepreneurship and Transformative Innovation and seeks to build a technology-enabled and sustainable rural agricultural ecosystem.
• Regenerative Agriculture: It refers to farming practices that improve soil health, conserve natural resources, enhance biodiversity, and strengthen long-term agricultural sustainability.
• Agri-Entrepreneur: It is a trained rural entrepreneur who provides agricultural inputs, advisory services, machinery access, financial support, and market connections to farmers.
• Climate-Smart Agriculture: It is an approach that seeks to increase agricultural productivity, improve resilience to climate risks, and reduce environmental impact.

Tabular Summary:

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11. What is the annual expenditure to be borne by the Uttar Pradesh government under the Guru Dakshina Cashless Medical Scheme?
A) ₹247 crore
B) ₹347 crore
C) ₹447 crore
D) ₹547 crore
E) ₹647 crore
Answer: C) ₹447 crore.

Event and Location:

• Event: The Uttar Pradesh government launched the Chief Minister Teacher Cashless Medical Scheme, popularly called Guru Dakshina, for teachers, education personnel, and their eligible family members.
• Location: The scheme applies across Uttar Pradesh.
• Date: The scheme was reported on 9 July 2026.

Mandates and Objectives:

• Mandates: The scheme will provide cashless hospitalisation through government and empanelled private hospitals, cover more than 1,900 treatment packages, and be implemented through the State Agency for Comprehensive Health and Integrated Services.
• Objectives: The initiative aims to reduce the medical burden on teachers and education staff, strengthen their social security, and enable them to focus more effectively on educational responsibilities.

Important Terms Explained:

• SACHIS: The State Agency for Comprehensive Health and Integrated Services will implement the scheme and facilitate cashless treatment and claim settlement.
• Cashless Hospitalisation: It is a facility under which eligible beneficiaries receive covered hospital treatment without making direct payment at the time of admission.
• Empanelled Hospital: It is a government or private hospital officially approved under the scheme to provide specified cashless treatment packages.
• Direct Benefit Transfer: It is a welfare-delivery mechanism through which financial assistance is transferred directly into the beneficiary’s bank account.

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National Affairs – Daily Current Affairs July 09

12. Which airport was notified as a designated port for importing drugs under the Drugs Rules, 1945?
A) Noida International Airport
B) Navi Mumbai International Airport
C) Kempegowda International Airport
D) Cochin International Airport
E) Rajiv Gandhi International Airport
Answer: B) Navi Mumbai International Airport.

Event and Location:

• Event: The Government of India notified Navi Mumbai International Airport as a designated port for the import of drugs under the Drugs Rules, 1945.
• Location: Navi Mumbai, Maharashtra.
• Date: The Ministry of Health and Family Welfare issued the notification on 8 July 2026.

Mandates and Objectives:

• Mandates: The Ministry amended Rule 43A of the Drugs Rules, 1945, after consultation with the Drugs Technical Advisory Board, to include Navi Mumbai International Airport among authorised drug import entry points.
• Objectives: The amendment aims to expand pharmaceutical import infrastructure, improve supply-chain efficiency, reduce congestion at existing ports, and facilitate regulated drug imports.

Important Terms Explained:

• Rule 43A: It is the provision under the Drugs Rules, 1945, that specifies the authorised ports through which drugs may legally be imported into India.
• Drugs Technical Advisory Board: It is the highest statutory technical advisory body on matters related to drugs and cosmetics under the Drugs and Cosmetics Act, 1940.
• Designated Port: It is an officially authorised airport, seaport, road point, or rail point through which regulated goods such as drugs may enter the country.
• Drugs and Cosmetics Act, 1940: It is the principal law governing the import, manufacture, distribution, and sale of drugs and cosmetics in India.

Tabular Summary:

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Over All Review

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