Daily Current Affairs April 01

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Current affairs are the most dynamic yet scoring among all sections and need to be prepared from the right source. Here, we cafunsta team, providing Daily GK Updates, Current Affairs Questions, and Monthly current affairs pdf.

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April 01 | Daily Current Affairs 2026

Important Days – Daily Current Affairs April 01

1. On which date is RBI Foundation Day observed every year in India?
A) 26 January
B) 1 April
C) 15 August
D) 1 July
E) 2 October
Answer: B) 1 April

Event and Location:

• Event: RBI Foundation Day 2026 marked the foundation day of the Reserve Bank of India and highlighted its history, functions, digital initiatives, and role in rupee stabilisation.
• Location: India.
• Date: 1 April 2026.

Mandates and Objectives:

• Mandates: The Reserve Bank of India continued its role in monetary policy, inflation control, currency regulation, banking supervision, foreign exchange management, and digital payment security.
• Objectives: The institution aims to maintain price stability, regulate the financial system, ensure safe and efficient payment systems, manage currency supply, and support financial stability during global and domestic economic challenges.

Important Terms Explained:

• Reserve Bank of India: The Reserve Bank of India is India’s central bank established in 1935 to regulate currency, credit, banking, and monetary policy.
• Hilton Young Commission: The Hilton Young Commission was the commission whose recommendations led to the establishment of the Reserve Bank of India.
• Monetary Policy: Monetary Policy refers to the policy framework through which the central bank manages money supply, interest rates, and inflation.
• Foreign Exchange Management Act, 1999: The Foreign Exchange Management Act, 1999 is the law administered by the RBI for managing foreign exchange transactions and markets in India.
• E-Cheques: E-Cheques are digital versions of traditional cheques designed to make cheque-based transactions faster and paperless.
• MuleHunter.AI: MuleHunter.AI is a technology initiative launched to detect mule bank accounts and help prevent money laundering and digital fraud.
• Two-factor authentication: Two-factor authentication is a security process that requires two forms of verification to approve a transaction or account access.

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2. Which date is observed as Utkal Divas to commemorate the formation of Odisha as a separate province?
A) 26 January 1950
B) 15 August 1947
C) 1 April 1936
D) 2 October 1905
E) 21 March 1912
Answer: C) 1 April 1936.

Event and Location:

• Event: Utkal Divas 2026 celebrates the formation of Odisha as a separate province.
• Location: Odisha.
• Date: 1 April 2026.

Mandates and Objectives:

• Mandates: Utkal Divas is observed through cultural programmes, public events, parades, speeches, tributes to leaders, and educational activities in schools and colleges.
• Objectives: The celebration aims to honour the struggle for a separate Odia-speaking province, preserve the Odia language and culture, and promote pride, unity, and awareness of Odisha’s historical identity.

Important Terms Explained:

• Utkal Divas: Utkal Divas is the annual observance of Odisha’s formation day on 1 April.
• Odisha Foundation Day: Odisha Foundation Day is another name for Utkal Divas and marks the creation of Odisha as a separate province in 1936.
• Utkal Sammilani: Utkal Sammilani was formed in 1903 and played a major role in mobilising support for the unification of Odia-speaking regions.
• Kalinga: Kalinga was the ancient name of the region now known as Odisha.
• Kalinga War: The Kalinga War of 261 BCE was fought between Emperor Ashoka and Kalinga, after which Ashoka turned towards peace and Buddhism.
• Odissi: Odissi is the classical dance form of Odisha and an important symbol of the state’s cultural heritage.

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Banking and Finance – Daily Current Affairs April 01

3. India’s GST collections in March 2026 reached which of the following levels?
A) ₹1.25 lakh crore
B) ₹1.48 lakh crore
C) ₹1.62 lakh crore
D) ₹1.78 lakh crore
E) ₹2.25 lakh crore
Answer: D) ₹1.78 lakh crore

Event and Location:

• Event: India’s GST collections rose to ₹1.78 lakh crore in March 2026, reflecting strong tax compliance and economic activity.
• Location: India.
• Date: March 2026.

Mandates and Objectives:

• Mandates: The March 2026 GST data recorded higher net and gross collections, increased import-related revenues, and higher refunds to businesses.
• Objectives: The rise in collections indicates stronger compliance, improved digital tax tracking, steady domestic demand, growing imports, and support for ease of doing business.

Important Terms Explained:

• GST: Goods and Services Tax is an indirect tax levied on the supply of goods and services across India.
• Gross GST Revenue: Gross GST Revenue refers to the total tax revenue collected before adjusting refunds.
• Net GST Collections: Net GST Collections refer to the revenue remaining after refunds are issued.
• SGST: State Goods and Services Tax is the portion of GST collected by state governments on intra-state transactions.
• Refunds: Refunds are amounts returned to taxpayers, especially exporters and eligible businesses, to improve liquidity and ease business operations.

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4. From 1 April 2026, which bank will count UPI-based cash withdrawals within the monthly free ATM transaction limit?
A) SBI
B) HDFC Bank
C) RBI
D) ICICI Bank
E) Bank of Baroda
Answer: B) HDFC Bank.

Event and Location:

• Event: New ATM rules came into effect from 1 April 2026, covering withdrawal limits, free transaction limits, and UPI-based cash withdrawals.
• Location: India.
• Date: 1 April 2026.

Mandates and Objectives:

• Mandates: Banks such as HDFC Bank, Punjab National Bank, and Bandhan Bank revised ATM rules by counting UPI cash withdrawals as ATM usage, reducing daily debit card withdrawal limits, and tightening free transaction limits at other bank ATMs.
• Objectives: The changes aim to standardise ATM usage, manage cash withdrawal patterns, and revise customer charges for transactions beyond the free monthly limits.

Important Terms Explained:

• ATM: An ATM is an Automated Teller Machine that allows customers to withdraw cash and conduct selected banking transactions.
• UPI-based cash withdrawal: UPI-based cash withdrawal is a cardless cash withdrawal facility at ATMs using the Unified Payments Interface instead of a physical debit card.
• Free ATM transaction limit: The free ATM transaction limit is the number of transactions a customer can make in a month without being charged by the bank.
• Debit card withdrawal limit: The debit card withdrawal limit is the maximum amount that can be withdrawn in cash using a debit card in a single day.
• Financial transaction: A financial transaction at an ATM includes services such as cash withdrawal that affect the account balance.
• Non-financial transaction: A non-financial transaction includes services such as balance enquiry or mini statement that do not involve movement of funds.

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Appointments – Daily Current Affairs April 01

5. Who was appointed as the new head of the Directorate General of Civil Aviation in 2026?
A) Faiz Ahmed Kidwai
B) Vir Vikram Yadav
C) Puneet Kansal
D) Vishal Gagan
E) Vijay Nehra
Answer: B) Vir Vikram Yadav

Event and Location:

• Event: Vir Vikram Yadav was appointed as the new head of the Directorate General of Civil Aviation.
• Location: India.
• Date: 1 April 2026.

Mandates and Objectives:

• Mandates: The Government of India appointed Vir Vikram Yadav as the new DGCA chief to lead the country’s civil aviation regulator during a period of rising air traffic, safety concerns, and operational challenges.
• Objectives: The appointment aims to strengthen aviation safety oversight, improve regulatory functioning, address staffing shortages, and ensure effective implementation of aviation norms in India.

Important Terms Explained:

• Directorate General of Civil Aviation (DGCA): The DGCA is India’s main civil aviation regulatory authority responsible for safety oversight, regulation of air transport services, and enforcement of aviation rules.
• FDTL norms: Flight Duty Time Limitation norms regulate the working hours and rest periods of flight crew to ensure operational safety.
• Ministry of Civil Aviation: The Ministry of Civil Aviation is the central ministry that oversees policy and administration related to civil aviation in India.
• International Civil Aviation Organization (ICAO): The ICAO is a United Nations specialized agency that works on international standards and regulations for civil aviation.
• Department of Personnel and Training (DoPT): The DoPT is a central government department dealing with personnel management and administrative appointments.

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6. Who was named by IndiGo to lead the airline amid global expansion and operational challenges?
A) Pieter Elbers
B) Willie Walsh
C) Campbell Wilson
D) Alan Joyce
E) Akasa Singh
Answer: B) Willie Walsh.

Event and Location:

• Event: IndiGo named aviation veteran Willie Walsh as its new CEO to support global expansion and address operational challenges.
• Location: India.
• Date: 31 March 2026.

Mandates and Objectives:

• Mandates: IndiGo appointed Willie Walsh as CEO to provide experienced leadership for international growth, operational management, and long-haul expansion.
• Objectives: The appointment aims to strengthen IndiGo’s global strategy, improve operational stability, expand into long-distance international markets, and enhance its position in the global aviation sector.

Important Terms Explained:

• IndiGo: IndiGo is India’s largest airline and a major player in the country’s domestic and international aviation market.
• Willie Walsh: Willie Walsh is a veteran aviation executive known for leading major international airline organisations and carriers.
• International Air Transport Association (IATA): IATA is the global airline association that represents around 300 airlines and helps set standards for safety, efficiency, and industry coordination.
• International Airlines Group (IAG): IAG is an international airline holding group formed with the involvement of Willie Walsh and includes major airline operations.
• Airbus A321XLR: The Airbus A321XLR is a long-range narrow-body aircraft designed for extended international routes.
• Airbus A350: The Airbus A350 is a long-haul wide-body aircraft used for international operations and network expansion.

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Awards – Daily Current Affairs April 01

7. The International Booker Prize is awarded for which type of literary work?
A) English poetry collections
B) Translated fiction published in the UK or Ireland
C) Indian regional biographies
D) Political essays in Europe
E) Children’s science books
Answer: B) Translated fiction published in the UK or Ireland.

Event and Location:

• Event: The International Booker Prize 2026 shortlist was announced with six novels from across the world.
• Location: Global shortlist announcement with the prize ceremony in London, United Kingdom.
• Date: 1 April 2026.

Mandates and Objectives:

• Mandates: The International Booker Prize 2026 shortlisted six translated novels that explore themes such as exile, identity, political upheaval, resilience, and human struggle.
• Objectives: The prize aims to recognise outstanding translated fiction, promote global literature, support cross-cultural understanding, and honour both authors and translators.

Important Terms Explained:

• International Booker Prize: The International Booker Prize is a major literary award that recognises translated fiction published in the United Kingdom or Ireland.
• Translated fiction: Translated fiction refers to literary works originally written in another language and later translated into English.
• Shortlist: A shortlist is the final selected list of entries chosen for award consideration before the winner is announced.
• Exile: Exile refers to the condition of living away from one’s homeland, often due to political or social reasons.
• Identity: Identity refers to the personal, cultural, national, or social sense of self explored in literature and society.
• Political upheaval: Political upheaval means major political disturbance or instability that affects individuals, families, and societies.

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Science and Technology – Daily Current Affairs April 01

8. India’s first quantum computer is scheduled to be launched in which city?
A) Hyderabad
B) Bengaluru
C) Amaravati
D) Chennai
E) Pune
Answer: C) Amaravati

Event and Location:

• Event: Andhra Pradesh announced the launch of India’s first quantum computer under the Amaravati Quantum Valley project.
• Location: Amaravati, Andhra Pradesh, India.
• Date: 14 April 2026.

Mandates and Objectives:

• Mandates: The Andhra Pradesh government is launching India’s first quantum computer with support from industry partnerships and the National Quantum Mission as part of the Amaravati Quantum Valley project.
• Objectives: The project aims to strengthen quantum research, promote startups, support self-reliance, improve high-performance computing, and position India as a global leader in next-generation technology.

Important Terms Explained:

• Quantum Computer: A quantum computer is a computing system that uses principles of quantum mechanics to solve complex problems faster than traditional computers.
• Amaravati Quantum Valley: Amaravati Quantum Valley is a proposed innovation ecosystem in Andhra Pradesh for quantum research, startups, and industry collaboration.
• National Quantum Mission: The National Quantum Mission is India’s initiative to support research, development, and innovation in quantum technologies.
• Qubits: Qubits are quantum bits that can exist in multiple states at the same time, unlike classical bits that are either 0 or 1.
• Superposition: Superposition is a property in quantum computing that allows qubits to exist as 0, 1, or both simultaneously.
• Atmanirbhar Bharat: Atmanirbhar Bharat is India’s vision of self-reliance through domestic innovation and manufacturing.

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Defence – Daily Current Affairs April 01

9. Under which project was the indigenous stealth frigate INS Dunagiri inducted into the Indian Navy?
A) Project 15B
B) Project 75
C) Project 17A
D) Project Varsha
E) Project Seabird
Answer: C) Project 17A.

Event and Location:

• Event: The Indian Navy inducted the indigenous stealth frigate INS Dunagiri to strengthen naval combat capability and support indigenous warship construction.
• Location: India.
• Date: 30 March 2026.

Mandates and Objectives:

• Mandates: INS Dunagiri, built by Garden Reach Shipbuilders & Engineers Limited (GRSE), has been inducted as the fifth Nilgiri-class frigate under Project 17A with advanced stealth, automation, weapons, and combat systems.
• Objectives: The induction aims to enhance India’s maritime strength, improve naval preparedness, promote indigenous defence manufacturing, and advance the vision of Aatmanirbhar Bharat in the defence sector.

Important Terms Explained:

• INS Dunagiri: INS Dunagiri is an indigenous multi-mission stealth frigate inducted into the Indian Navy under Project 17A.
• Project 17A: Project 17A is the next-generation frigate programme of the Indian Navy designed to improve stealth, combat systems, weapons integration, and construction efficiency.
• Nilgiri-class: The Nilgiri-class refers to the class of advanced stealth frigates being built under Project 17A for the Indian Navy.
• Garden Reach Shipbuilders & Engineers Limited (GRSE): GRSE is a defence shipbuilding company based in Kolkata that built INS Dunagiri.
• Aatmanirbhar Bharat: Aatmanirbhar Bharat is the national vision aimed at promoting self-reliance in manufacturing, including defence production.
• BrahMos: BrahMos is a supersonic cruise missile used for precision surface strike capability.
• MF-STAR radar: MF-STAR radar is an advanced radar system used for surveillance and threat detection on naval platforms. MRSAM: MRSAM stands for Medium Range Surface-to-Air Missile and is used for air defence against aerial threats.
• CODOG: CODOG stands for Combined Diesel or Gas propulsion system that allows efficient speed management and operational flexibility in warships.

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10. INS Sanshodhak belongs to which category of ships inducted for strengthening India’s maritime survey capabilities?
A) Aircraft carrier
B) Destroyer
C) Survey Vessel Large
D) Nuclear submarine
E) Amphibious assault ship
Answer: C) Survey Vessel Large.

Event and Location:

• Event: The Indian Navy received INS Sanshodhak, the fourth and final Survey Vessel (Large), to strengthen hydrographic and maritime survey capabilities.
• Location: India.
• Date: 30 March 2026.

Mandates and Objectives:

• Mandates: INS Sanshodhak has been delivered to the Indian Navy as part of the completed four-ship Survey Vessel (Large) project built by Garden Reach Shipbuilders & Engineers Limited (GRSE), Kolkata, with more than 80 percent indigenous content.
• Objectives: The vessel is intended to improve hydrographic surveys, enhance navigation safety, support oceanographic and geophysical data collection, assist port and harbour development, and promote Aatmanirbhar Bharat in defence manufacturing.

Important Terms Explained:

• INS Sanshodhak: INS Sanshodhak is the fourth and final Survey Vessel (Large) delivered to the Indian Navy for advanced coastal and deep-sea hydrographic operations.
• Survey Vessel (Large): A Survey Vessel (Large) is a naval ship designed to conduct hydrographic surveys, seabed mapping, underwater data collection, and navigation support missions.
• Garden Reach Shipbuilders & Engineers Limited (GRSE): GRSE is a defence shipbuilding company based in Kolkata that built INS Sanshodhak for the Indian Navy.
• Hydrographic Survey: A hydrographic survey is the process of measuring and mapping underwater terrain, seabed features, and navigational routes for safe maritime operations.
• Autonomous Underwater Vehicle (AUV): An AUV is an unmanned underwater system used for seabed mapping, data collection, and survey missions.
• Remotely Operated Vehicle (ROV): An ROV is a tethered underwater vehicle used for inspection, observation, and marine survey tasks.
• Aatmanirbhar Bharat: Aatmanirbhar Bharat is India’s self-reliance initiative aimed at promoting indigenous manufacturing, including in the defence sector.

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International Affairs – Daily Current Affairs April 01

11. Which city hosted the 14th Ministerial Conference of the World Trade Organization in 2026?
A) Geneva
B) Nairobi
C) Abu Dhabi
D) Yaoundé
E) New Delhi
Answer: D) Yaoundé

Event and Location:

• Event: The 14th Ministerial Conference of the World Trade Organization concluded with discussions on trade reforms, fisheries subsidies, e-commerce, and agriculture.
• Location: Yaoundé, Cameroon.
• Date: 30 March 2026.

Mandates and Objectives:

• Mandates: The conference brought together global trade leaders to deliberate on WTO reforms, fisheries subsidies, e-commerce, food security, and support for developing and least developed countries.
• Objectives: The conference aimed to promote a fair, inclusive, and development-oriented global trading system while addressing pending issues in agriculture, dispute settlement, and digital trade.

Important Terms Explained:

• World Trade Organization (WTO): The World Trade Organization is the global body that regulates international trade rules and provides a platform for trade negotiations and dispute settlement.
• Ministerial Conference: The Ministerial Conference is the highest decision-making body of the WTO and is held every two years.
• Fisheries Subsidies: Fisheries subsidies refer to government support provided to the fisheries sector, which is debated globally in relation to sustainability and livelihood protection.
• Public Stockholding (PSH): Public Stockholding is a policy through which governments procure and store food grains for food security purposes.
• Special Safeguard Mechanism (SSM): The Special Safeguard Mechanism is a trade tool sought by developing countries to protect farmers from sudden import surges or price falls.
• Sanitary and Phytosanitary (SPS) Measures: SPS measures are rules related to food safety and animal and plant health standards in international trade.
• Technical Barriers to Trade (TBT): Technical Barriers to Trade refer to regulations, standards, testing, and certification procedures that may affect trade flows.

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National Affairs – Daily Current Affairs April 01

12. The inauguration of the Kaynes Semicon Plant in Sanand is mainly aimed at strengthening which sector in India?
A) Textile manufacturing
B) Semiconductor manufacturing
C) Tourism development
D) Dairy processing
E) Space tourism
Answer: B) Semiconductor manufacturing.

Event and Location:

• Event: Prime Minister Narendra Modi inaugurated the Kaynes Semicon Plant to boost domestic chip production and strengthen India’s semiconductor ecosystem.
• Location: Sanand, Gujarat.
• Date: 31 March 2026.

Mandates and Objectives:

• Mandates: The Kaynes Semicon Plant has started domestic production of semiconductor components, including Intelligent Power Modules (IPMs), for sectors such as electric vehicles, electronics, industrial automation, and energy-efficient systems.
• Objectives: The plant aims to strengthen India’s semiconductor ecosystem, reduce dependence on chip imports, support Make in India, improve integration with global supply chains, and advance the goals of the India Semiconductor Mission.

Important Terms Explained:

• Kaynes Semicon Plant: The Kaynes Semicon Plant is a semiconductor manufacturing facility inaugurated in Sanand, Gujarat, to support domestic chip production in India.
• Intelligent Power Modules (IPMs): Intelligent Power Modules (IPMs) are advanced semiconductor components used in electric vehicles, industrial systems, and energy-efficient electronic applications.
• Make in India: Make in India is a government initiative aimed at promoting domestic manufacturing and making India a global production hub.
• India Semiconductor Mission: The India Semiconductor Mission was launched in 2021 to develop a complete semiconductor ecosystem, promote domestic manufacturing and design, and reduce dependence on imports.
• Semiconductor Mission 2.0: Semiconductor Mission 2.0 is the next phase of India’s chip strategy focused on building a complete supply chain, including materials, equipment, and skilled workforce development.
• Chips to Startup Programme: The Chips to Startup Programme supports startups, universities, and innovators in semiconductor design and talent development in India.

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13. Which feature has been introduced for the first time in Census 2027 in India?
A) Paper-based enumeration
B) Door-to-door tax survey
C) Self-enumeration
D) Manual voter verification
E) Offline passport listing
Answer: C) Self-enumeration.

Event and Location:

• Event: India has started Census 2027, the country’s first fully digital census exercise with mobile applications and self-enumeration.
• Location: India.
• Date: 1 April 2026.

Mandates and Objectives:

• Mandates: Census 2027 will be conducted in two phases using smartphone-based mobile applications, digital monitoring, and an online self-enumeration facility for citizens.
• Objectives: The exercise aims to improve the speed, transparency, efficiency, accessibility, and accuracy of demographic data collection across India.

Important Terms Explained:

• Census 2027: Census 2027 is India’s 16th Census and the eighth after Independence, and it is the first to be conducted in a fully digital format.
• Self-enumeration: Self-enumeration allows citizens to fill in their census details online before the visit of enumerators.
• Houselisting and Housing Census (HLO): Houselisting and Housing Census is the first phase of the census that collects information related to housing conditions, amenities, and household assets.
• Population Enumeration: Population Enumeration is the second phase of the census that gathers individual-level details such as demographics, education, migration, and fertility.
• Mobile applications: Mobile applications will be used by enumerators for real-time digital data collection instead of traditional paper-based methods.

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14. The Bhavasagara Centre has been designated as the National Repository for which of the following?
A) Coastal tourism records
B) Deep-Sea Fauna
C) Inland fisheries data
D) Coral reef trade
E) Mangrove plantation maps
Answer: B) Deep-Sea Fauna.

Event and Location:

• Event: India designated the Bhavasagara Referral Centre as the National Repository for Deep-Sea Fauna to strengthen marine biodiversity conservation and research.
• Location: Kochi, India.
• Date: 1 April 2026.

Mandates and Objectives:

• Mandates: The Bhavasagara Centre, developed by the Centre for Marine Living Resources and Ecology, has been recognised under the Biological Diversity Act, 2002 as a national-level repository for preserving, documenting, and studying India’s deep-sea biodiversity.
• Objectives: The initiative aims to support marine scientific research, conserve deep-sea biodiversity, preserve biological samples and DNA data, assist taxonomy development, and strengthen India’s blue economy.

Important Terms Explained:

• Bhavasagara Referral Centre: The Bhavasagara Referral Centre is a marine biodiversity facility in Kochi that has been designated as the National Repository for Deep-Sea Fauna.
• Deep-Sea Fauna: Deep-Sea Fauna refers to animal species that inhabit deep ocean ecosystems, including both vertebrates and invertebrates.
• Centre for Marine Living Resources and Ecology: The Centre for Marine Living Resources and Ecology is an institution under the Ministry of Earth Sciences that works on marine biodiversity and ocean research.
• Biological Diversity Act, 2002: The Biological Diversity Act, 2002 is the legal framework that supports conservation, sustainable use, and documentation of biological diversity in India.
• Blue Economy: The blue economy refers to the sustainable use of ocean resources for economic growth, livelihoods, and ecosystem health.
• Taxonomy: Taxonomy is the scientific classification and naming of organisms based on their characteristics.
• DNA data: DNA data refers to genetic information preserved for scientific identification, classification, and biodiversity research.

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15. Which city has been declared the sole capital of Andhra Pradesh through an amendment to the Andhra Pradesh Reorganisation Act, 2014?
A) Hyderabad
B) Visakhapatnam
C) Kurnool
D) Amaravati
E) Vijayawada
Answer: D) Amaravati.

Event and Location:

• Event: The Lok Sabha passed a resolution declaring Amaravati as the sole capital of Andhra Pradesh.
• Location: Andhra Pradesh, India.
• Date: 2 April 2026.

Mandates and Objectives:

• Mandates: The Lok Sabha amended the Andhra Pradesh Reorganisation Act, 2014 to replace the earlier provision under Section 5 and officially declare Amaravati as the sole capital of Andhra Pradesh with retrospective effect from 2 June 2024.
• Objectives: The move aims to end the three-capital arrangement, restore a single-capital system, provide administrative clarity, and support the development of Amaravati as the full capital of the state.

Important Terms Explained:

• Andhra Pradesh Reorganisation Act, 2014: The Andhra Pradesh Reorganisation Act, 2014 is the law that governed the bifurcation of Andhra Pradesh and Telangana and laid down provisions related to the capital arrangement.
• Amaravati: Amaravati is the city declared as the sole capital of Andhra Pradesh through the latest amendment.
• Section 5: Section 5 is the provision in the reorganisation law dealing with the capital of Andhra Pradesh.
• Three Capitals Plan: The Three Capitals Plan proposed Visakhapatnam as the executive capital, Amaravati as the legislative capital, and Kurnool as the judicial capital.
• Retrospective effect: Retrospective effect means that the amendment is treated as effective from an earlier date, which in this case is 2 June 2024.

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Over All Review

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