Daily Current Affairs October 23
Table of Contents
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October 23 | Daily Current Affairs 2025
Sports – Daily Current Affairs October 23
1. Which South African player scored his maiden Test half-century and helped script a late-order comeback against Pakistan in the second Test in October 2025?
A) Keshav Maharaj
B) Tristan Stubbs
C) Senuran Muthusamy
D) Kagiso Rabada
E) Marco Jansen
Answer: D) Kagiso Rabada
Event and Location:
- Event: Kagiso Rabada scores maiden Test fifty, leads South Africa’s lower-order comeback
- Location: Second Test, South Africa tour of Pakistan
- Date: 22 October 2025 (Day 3)
Mandates and Objectives:
- Mandates: South Africa, trailing in the series, staged a remarkable comeback on Day 3 of the second Test against Pakistan after being reduced to 235-8, thanks to an explosive 71 by No. 11 Kagiso Rabada and a career-best 89 by Senuran Muthusamy*, forming a 98-run last-wicket stand.
- Objectives: To fight back from a near-collapse and gain a first-innings lead, keeping the series alive. The late-order heroics flipped the match momentum, allowing South Africa to regain control after a dominant bowling effort by debutant Asif Afridi.
Important Terms Explained:
- Kagiso Rabada: South African fast bowler known for his lethal pace, claimed his first Test fifty with a belligerent 71 off 61 balls, hitting 4 sixes and 4 boundaries, batting at No. 11.
- Asif Afridi: 38-year-old Pakistani left-arm spinner, became the oldest player to take a five-wicket haul on Test debut, claiming 6-79, and surpassing the record held by Charles Marriott (England) since 1933.
- Senuran Muthusamy: South African all-rounder who remained unbeaten on 89 off 155 balls, forming crucial lower-order partnerships with Maharaj and Rabada.
- CL: Collaborative Last-wicket Partnership: A key aspect of this match where both ninth and tenth-wicket partnerships crossed 50+ runs — a rare feat in Test cricket.
Tabular Summary:
| Parameter | Details |
| Event name | Rabada scores maiden Test fifty; South Africa’s comeback vs Pakistan |
| Announcement date | 22 October 2025 |
| Location | Second Test match, South Africa tour of Pakistan |
| Issuing authority | Match update reported by PTI and AFP |
| Policy/series name | 2-match Test Series – ICC World Test Championship 2023–25 |
| Key figures | Kagiso Rabada (71), Senuran Muthusamy (89*), Asif Afridi (6-79), Simon Harmer (3-26) |
| Purpose/reason | To recover from collapse and gain first-innings lead |
| Feature details | SA: 404 all out after 185-4 → 235-8 → 306-9 → 404; 98-run 10th wicket stand |
| Validity or status | Day 3 complete; Pakistan at 94-4 in second innings |
| Strategic/significant value | Keeps South Africa alive in series; rare record for debutant Afridi; rare 50+ stands for 9th & 10th wickets |
Banking and Finance – Daily Current Affairs October 23
2. What new requirement has SEBI proposed for creating mutual fund folios under the updated KYC norms?
A) PAN verification through banks
B) Direct RBI approval
C) KRA-verified and active KYC status
D) Investor consent through mobile OTP only
E) Investment cap on new folios
Answer: C) KRA-verified and active KYC status
Event and Location:
- Event: SEBI proposes new KYC norms for mutual fund folios
- Location: PAN India
- Date: 23 October 2025
Mandates and Objectives:
- Mandates: SEBI has released a draft framework proposing stricter Know Your Client (KYC) requirements for mutual fund folios. As per the proposal, new folios can be created only after the KYC Registration Agency (KRA) provides an explicit approval confirming active KYC status.
- Objectives: The objective is to reduce operational inefficiencies, prevent delays in redemptions, and eliminate issues arising from unverified or inconsistent investor data, ultimately improving investor experience and regulatory compliance.
Important Terms Explained:
- SEBI (Securities and Exchange Board of India): The statutory regulatory body for securities and capital markets in India, responsible for protecting investor interests and regulating market intermediaries.
- KYC (Know Your Client): A compliance process used by financial institutions to verify the identity of clients, aimed at preventing fraud, money laundering, and illegal financial activities.
- KRA (KYC Registration Agency): Entities registered with SEBI that maintain investor KYC records across intermediaries and validate submitted documents before approving investor participation in financial products.
Tabular Summary:
| Parameter | Details |
| Event name | Proposal to tighten KYC norms for mutual fund folios |
| Announcement date | 23 October 2025 |
| Location | Across India |
| Issuing authority | Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) |
| Policy/series name | Draft KYC Framework for Mutual Funds |
| Key figures | SEBI, KRAs, AMCs |
| Purpose/reason | Reduce blocked folios and delayed redemptions due to compliance gaps |
| Feature details | New folios only after KRA-verified active KYC; investor notifications |
| Validity or status | Open for public comments until 14 November 2025 |
| Strategic/significant value | Enhances transparency, investor protection, and operational efficiency |
3. How much is the second tranche of World Bank funding expected for the Amaravati Capital Phase-I project?
A) $150 million
B) $300 million
C) $100 million
D) $200 million
E) $250 million
Answer: D) $200 million
Event and Location:
- Event: World Bank to release second tranche of funding for Amaravati Capital Project
- Location: Amaravati, Andhra Pradesh
- Date: By December 2025 (announcement on 23 October 2025)
Mandates and Objectives:
- Mandates: The World Bank and the Asian Development Bank (ADB) have each committed $800 million (total $1.6 billion / ₹13,600 crore) towards Phase-I development of Amaravati Capital City. The second tranche of $200 million from the World Bank is expected to be released by December 2025.
- Objectives: To facilitate infrastructure development of Andhra Pradesh’s new capital city through global financial support, enabling the creation of smart governance infrastructure, housing, environmental systems, and social facilities as part of Amaravati’s master plan.
Important Terms Explained:
- World Bank: A global financial institution that provides loans and grants to governments for development projects aimed at reducing poverty and boosting shared prosperity.
- ADB (Asian Development Bank): A regional development bank that works to promote social and economic development in Asia. Both ADB and World Bank are co-funding the Amaravati Capital Project.
- DLR (Disbursement Linked Result): A performance-based funding mechanism where funds are released upon achieving pre-agreed results. For Amaravati, DLR 7.1 and 1.2(i) relate to construction commencement and environmental/social safeguards.
- IBRD (International Bank for Reconstruction and Development): The lending arm of the World Bank Group that provides loans to middle-income and creditworthy low-income countries.
Tabular Summary:
| Parameter | Details |
| Event name | World Bank to release $200M second tranche for Amaravati Project |
| Announcement date | 23 October 2025 |
| Location | Amaravati, Andhra Pradesh |
| Issuing authority | World Bank, in coordination with ADB and Govt. of India |
| Policy/series name | Amaravati Capital City Phase-I Development Programme |
| Key figures | S Suresh Kumar (Principal Secretary), CRDA, DEA (Borrower) |
| Purpose/reason | Infrastructure development of new capital through phased global funding |
| Feature details | Total $1.6B funding by WB & ADB; ₹1,400 crore from Indian govt.; DLR-linked disbursement |
| Validity or status | First tranche ($207M) released; second tranche due by Dec 2025 |
| Strategic/significant value | Enables capital city planning, smart infrastructure, and governance modernization |
4. What is the name of the new term plan launched by Tata AIA Life Insurance that offers both lump-sum and monthly income benefits?
A) Tata AIA Family Secure
B) AIA Life Protect Plus
C) Shubh Family Protect
D) Tata Secure Term
E) Smart Life Assure
Answer: C) Shubh Family Protect
Event and Location:
- Event: Launch of Shubh Family Protect term plan by Tata AIA Life Insurance
- Location: PAN India
- Date: 23 October 2025
Mandates and Objectives:
- Mandates: Tata AIA Life Insurance has launched a new term insurance plan called Shubh Family Protect, combining an immediate lump-sum payout with a monthly income for beneficiaries, payable over 10 to 30 years. The product also includes terminal illness coverage, with upfront payment of 50% of the sum assured and waiver of future premiums.
- Objectives: To provide enhanced financial flexibility and security for families, especially in managing large payouts over time, while offering features such as multiple beneficiary nomination, monthly income options, and tax-efficient premium payments.
Important Terms Explained:
- Term Insurance Plan: A type of life insurance that provides a death benefit to the nominee if the insured dies during the policy term. No maturity benefit is payable if the insured survives.
- Shubh Family Protect: A first-of-its-kind term plan offering a combination of lump-sum and regular income, allowing beneficiaries to receive steady financial support rather than a single payout.
- Terminal Illness Benefit: A rider/feature that allows early claim payout (50% in this case) if the policyholder is diagnosed with a terminal illness, and waives future premiums to ease financial stress.
- IWNBP (Individual Weighted New Business Premium): A metric used in the insurance industry to assess new business performance in individual life insurance, factoring in policy size and premium mode.
Tabular Summary:
| Parameter | Details |
| Event name | Launch of Shubh Family Protect Term Plan |
| Announcement date | 23 October 2025 |
| Location | PAN India |
| Issuing authority | Tata AIA Life Insurance |
| Policy/series name | Shubh Family Protect |
| Key figures | Sujeet Kothare (Chief of Products & Marketing, Tata AIA) |
| Purpose/reason | Provide financial security through lump-sum and long-term income payouts |
| Feature details | Lump-sum + monthly income (10–30 years), terminal illness benefit, multi-nominee |
| Validity or status | Officially launched and available for individual customers |
| Strategic/significant value | Enhances family protection, flexible payout structure, supports estate planning |
5. According to RBI’s Payment Systems Report for HY ending June 2025, which payment mode led in transaction value?
A) UPI
B) IMPS
C) NEFT
D) RTGS
E) Debit Cards
Answer: D) RTGS
Event and Location:
- Event: RBI releases Payment Systems Report for HY ending June 2025
- Location: Mumbai, India
- Date: 23 October 2025
Mandates and Objectives:
- Mandates: The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) published its bi-annual Payments Systems Report, highlighting that in the first half of 2025, total digital transactions reached 12,549 crore in volume, amounting to ₹1,572 lakh crore in value. UPI led in terms of volume, while RTGS dominated in transaction value.
- Objectives: To provide stakeholders with insights into digital payment trends, growth patterns, and shifts in consumer payment behaviour, aiding future policy and infrastructure development in India’s digital payments ecosystem.
Important Terms Explained:
- UPI (Unified Payments Interface): A real-time payment system developed by NPCI, allowing users to link multiple bank accounts and make instant fund transfers via mobile phones. It is currently India’s most used payment method by volume.
- RTGS (Real-Time Gross Settlement): A payment system primarily used for high-value transactions. It allows real-time, gross settlement of funds, making it the preferred choice for large financial transfers.
- RBI Payment Systems Report: A bi-annual publication by the RBI that tracks trends, performance, and innovation in India’s payment systems, including digital, card-based, and banking channel transactions.
Tabular Summary:
| Parameter | Details |
| Event name | RBI Payment Systems Report – HY ending June 2025 |
| Announcement date | 23 October 2025 |
| Location | Mumbai |
| Issuing authority | Reserve Bank of India (RBI) |
| Policy/series name | RBI Bi-Annual Payment Systems Report |
| Key figures | Volume: 12,549 crore; Value: ₹1,572 lakh crore |
| Purpose/reason | Highlight digital payments trends, volume and value leader modes |
| Feature details | UPI leads in volume; RTGS in value; debit card usage on decline |
| Validity or status | Data for January–June 2025 (HY1) |
| Strategic/significant value | Shows India’s shift to digital-first economy and real-time payments leadership |
Business and Economy – Daily Current Affairs October 23
6. According to Deloitte India’s latest economic outlook, what is the projected GDP growth range for India in FY26?
A) 5.9%–6.2%
B) 6.0%–6.4%
C) 6.7%–6.9%
D) 7.1%–7.4%
E) 7.5%–7.8%
Answer: C) 6.7%–6.9%
Event and Location:
- Event: Deloitte India releases FY26 GDP growth forecast
- Location: New Delhi, India
- Date: 23 October 2025
Mandates and Objectives:
- Mandates: Deloitte India published its latest India Economic Outlook, forecasting the GDP growth rate for FY26 at 6.7%–6.9%, averaging 6.8%, aligning with the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) estimate.
- Objectives: To provide a data-driven economic projection based on domestic demand, policy reforms, and inflation dynamics, enabling businesses and policymakers to align their strategies for growth and risk management.
Important Terms Explained:
- Gross Domestic Product (GDP): A measure of the economic output of a country. It reflects the total value of goods and services produced over a specific time period.
- RBI (Reserve Bank of India): India’s central bank responsible for formulating and implementing the country’s monetary policy to maintain price stability and ensure economic growth.
- Core Inflation: Inflation rate excluding food and fuel items. It is considered a better gauge of long-term inflation trends.
- GST 2.0: A potential reform phase of India’s Goods and Services Tax (GST) system aimed at further simplification, enhanced compliance, and revenue efficiency.
- MSME Sector: Refers to Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises, which contribute significantly to employment, GDP, exports, and industrial output in India.
Tabular Summary:
| Parameter | Details |
| Event name | Deloitte India FY26 GDP Growth Forecast |
| Announcement date | 23 October 2025 |
| Location | New Delhi, India |
| Issuing authority | Deloitte India |
| Policy/series name | India Economic Outlook Report (FY26 Edition) |
| Key figures | Rumki Majumdar (Economist, Deloitte India), RBI projections |
| Purpose/reason | Projected GDP growth trend for fiscal 2025–26 |
| Feature details | GDP growth forecast at 6.7%–6.9%, averaging 6.8%; buoyed by demand and policy |
| Validity or status | FY26 forecast aligned with current economic indicators |
| Strategic/significant value | Informs monetary and investment strategies; highlights global risks and inflation concerns |
7. Which company led India’s B2C e-commerce funding in 2025 with the highest individual funding round?
A) Zepto
B) GIVA
C) TMRW
D) Spinny
E) Foxtale
Answer: D) Spinny
Event and Location:
- Event: India’s B2C e-commerce sector raises $1.3 billion in 2025 funding
- Location: PAN India (Data consolidated by Tracxn, Bengaluru)
- Date: 23 October 2025
Mandates and Objectives:
- Mandates: According to Tracxn’s latest report, India’s business-to-consumer (B2C) e-commerce sector secured $1.3 billion in 2025 funding across various growth-stage rounds, adding to a cumulative all-time funding of $57 billion.
- Objectives: The report highlights funding trends, top contributors, and the sector’s maturity, aiming to provide stakeholders—including investors, founders, and policymakers—insights into India’s growing digital commerce landscape.
Important Terms Explained:
- B2C E-commerce: Business-to-consumer electronic commerce refers to online transactions where businesses sell goods or services directly to individual consumers.
- Unicorn: A privately held startup company valued at over $1 billion. India’s B2C sector has produced 31 unicorns to date.
- Series F / Series C / Series G: These are later-stage venture funding rounds. Higher alphabets denote further maturity of the startup, with Series F being an advanced round indicating sustained growth and scale.
- Quick Commerce: A sub-segment of e-commerce focused on ultra-fast deliveries, usually under 30 minutes, for groceries and essentials. Zepto is a key player in this space.
Tabular Summary:
| Parameter | Details |
| Event name | India’s B2C e-commerce sector raises $1.3B in 2025 |
| Announcement date | 23 October 2025 |
| Location | Nationwide (Data compiled by Tracxn, Bengaluru) |
| Issuing authority | Tracxn Technologies Ltd. |
| Policy/series name | India Economic & Startup Outlook – B2C E-commerce Report 2025 |
| Key figures | Spinny ($171M), GIVA ($68M), TMRW ($50M), Zepto ($49M), Flipkart ($12.1B total) |
| Purpose/reason | Track investment trends, sectoral growth, and funding distribution |
| Feature details | 31 unicorns, 235 acquisitions, 64 IPOs, 102 mega-deals, $57B total funding |
| Validity or status | Report valid for calendar year 2025 |
| Strategic/significant value | Showcases India’s evolving consumer tech sector and investment ecosystem |
Appointments – Daily Current Affairs October 23
8. Who has been appointed as the new full-time Member Secretary of the Commission for Air Quality Management (CAQM)?
A) Arvind Kumar Nautiyal
B) Sunita Narain
C) Tarun Kumar Pithode
D) Ravi S Prasad
E) Rameshwar Prasad Gupta
Answer: C) Tarun Kumar Pithode
Event and Location:
- Event: Appointment of Shri Tarun Kumar Pithode as full-time Member Secretary of CAQM
- Location: NCR and adjoining areas
- Date: 23 October 2025
Mandates and Objectives:
- Mandates: Shri Tarun Kumar Pithode, a 2009 batch IAS officer from the Madhya Pradesh cadre, has officially taken over as the new full-time Member Secretary of the Commission for Air Quality Management (CAQM), succeeding Shri Arvind Kumar Nautiyal.
- Objectives: The objective of this appointment is to ensure long-term leadership stability and enhanced execution of the commission’s responsibilities in managing and improving air quality across the NCR and surrounding regions.
Important Terms Explained:
- Commission for Air Quality Management (CAQM): A statutory body under the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change, formed in 2020 to address air pollution in Delhi-NCR and surrounding states through coordinated efforts, monitoring, and enforcement.
- Member Secretary (CAQM): The Member Secretary is the administrative head responsible for coordinating inter-agency actions, policy execution, and monitoring of air quality management strategies.
- IRSME: Stands for Indian Railway Service of Mechanical Engineers, a Group ‘A’ service of Indian Railways. Shri Arvind Kumar Nautiyal, the outgoing Member Secretary, belongs to this cadre.
Tabular Summary:
| Parameter | Details |
| Event name | Appointment of new Member Secretary to CAQM |
| Announcement date | 23 October 2025 |
| Location | NCR and adjoining areas |
| Issuing authority | Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change |
| Policy/series name | CAQM Member Secretary Appointment |
| Key figures | Shri Tarun Kumar Pithode, Shri Arvind Kumar Nautiyal |
| Purpose/reason | To strengthen administrative leadership of CAQM |
| Feature details | Full-time appointment for five years till 08.09.2029 or until further orders |
| Validity or status | Currently effective from 23 October 2025 |
| Strategic/significant value | Enhances CAQM’s capability to manage air quality challenges in NCR region |
9. India was re-elected as the Vice-Chairperson of which bureau at COP10 of the International Convention against Doping in Sport?
A) COP Bureau for South Asia
B) UNESCO Sports Integrity Bureau
C) COP10 Bureau for Asia-Pacific (Group IV)
D) WADA Compliance Committee
E) Global Doping Review Board
Answer: C) COP10 Bureau for Asia-Pacific (Group IV)
Event and Location:
- Event: India re-elected as Vice-Chairperson of COP10 Bureau
- Location: UNESCO Headquarters, Paris, France
- Date: 20–22 October 2025
Mandates and Objectives:
- Mandates: India, represented by the Secretary (Sports) and Director General of National Anti-Doping Agency (NADA), participated in COP10 of the International Convention against Doping in Sport and was re-elected as Vice-Chairperson of the Bureau for Asia-Pacific (Group IV) for 2025–2027.
- Objectives: The participation and re-election reaffirm India’s commitment to clean sport, international cooperation on anti-doping efforts, and promotion of ethics and values in sports through mechanisms like the Values Education through Sport (VETS) approach.
Important Terms Explained:
- International Convention against Doping in Sport: A legally binding international treaty adopted by UNESCO to fight doping in sport, promote clean competition, and ensure integrity globally.
- COP10 (Conference of Parties 10): The 10th session of the governing body under the Convention, where 190+ member countries meet to discuss governance, compliance, and emerging challenges in anti-doping.
- National Anti-Doping Agency (NADA): India’s national body responsible for implementing anti-doping regulations, testing athletes, and promoting clean sport practices in alignment with WADA guidelines.
Tabular Summary:
| Parameter | Details |
| Event name | India re-elected as Vice-Chairperson of COP10 Bureau |
| Announcement date | 22 October 2025 |
| Location | UNESCO Headquarters, Paris, France |
| Issuing authority | UNESCO and Conference of Parties to the Anti-Doping Convention |
| Policy/series name | International Convention against Doping in Sport |
| Key figures | Shri Hari Ranjan Rao, Shri Anant Kumar, UNESCO, WADA |
| Purpose/reason | Promote integrity, clean sport, and anti-doping standards globally |
| Feature details | India re-elected for term 2025–2027; supported interactive boards, VETS |
| Validity or status | Active term from 2025–2027 |
| Strategic/significant value | Enhances India’s global role in sports ethics and anti-doping governance |
Awards – Daily Current Affairs October 23
10. Who has been chosen as the recipient of the Vaikom Award 2025 by the Tamil Nadu Government?
A) Arundhati Roy
B) Thenmozhi Soundararajan
C) Meena Kandasamy
D) Bama Faustina
E) Gita Ramaswamy
Answer: B) Thenmozhi Soundararajan
Event and Location:
- Event: Thenmozhi Soundararajan announced as recipient of Vaikom Award 2025
- Location: Chennai, Tamil Nadu
- Date: 22 October 2025 (announcement made), reported on 23 October 2025
Mandates and Objectives:
- Mandates: The Government of Tamil Nadu has announced that the Vaikom Award 2025 will be presented to Thenmozhi Soundararajan, a California-based rights activist and author, for her contribution to civil rights advocacy and caste equity.
- Objectives: To recognize and honour outstanding efforts in advocating for oppressed communities, and to celebrate global contributions by individuals of Tamil origin in social justice and literature.
Important Terms Explained:
- Vaikom Award: A civilian honour instituted by the Tamil Nadu Government, named after the Vaikom Satyagraha — a significant social reform movement — awarded to individuals contributing to social justice, civil rights, and equity.
- Thenmozhi Soundararajan: A Dalit rights activist, author, and founder of Equality Labs, a US-based civil rights organization. She is internationally recognized for her work on caste-based discrimination and digital rights.
- The Trauma of Caste: A book by Thenmozhi Soundararajan titled “The Trauma of Caste: A Dalit Feminist Meditation on Survivorship, Healing and Abolition”, critically acclaimed for addressing caste trauma through a feminist and abolitionist lens.
- Equality Labs: A US-based civil rights organization led by Dalit women and minorities, focused on fighting casteism, Islamophobia, racism, and other forms of systemic oppression.
Tabular Summary:
| Parameter | Details |
| Event name | Vaikom Award 2025 conferred to Thenmozhi Soundararajan |
| Announcement date | 22 October 2025 |
| Location | Chennai, Tamil Nadu |
| Issuing authority | Government of Tamil Nadu |
| Policy/series name | State Civil Honour – Vaikom Award |
| Key figures | Thenmozhi Soundararajan, CM M. K. Stalin |
| Purpose/reason | Recognition of civil rights work and caste-based advocacy |
| Feature details | ₹5 lakh cash prize, citation, and gold-plated medallion |
| Validity or status | Official announcement made; award to be conferred soon |
| Strategic/significant value | Encourages social justice advocacy and highlights Tamil diaspora contributions |
11. Which institution was awarded by the Bureau of Indian Standards (BIS) for excellence in standardization and confirmative assessment?
A) IIT Madras
B) NIT Trichy
C) IISc Bangalore
D) Anna University
E) Delhi Technological University
Answer: B) NIT Trichy
Event and Location:
- Event: NIT Trichy awarded for promoting standardization in education
- Location: Noida (World Standards Day 2025 Celebration)
- Date: October 22, 2025
Mandates and Objectives:
- Mandates:
- The Bureau of Indian Standards (BIS) recognized NIT Trichy and its faculty members for their contribution to standardization and confirmative assessment in higher education.
- Objectives:
- To encourage academic institutions to integrate quality, standards, and innovation into their curricula and promote awareness of standardization in technical education.
Important Terms Explained:
- Bureau of Indian Standards (BIS):
- The national standards body of India, working under the Ministry of Consumer Affairs, responsible for setting quality and safety benchmarks for goods and services.
- Standardization and Confirmative Assessment:
- An academic initiative aimed at teaching students the importance of national/international standards and how to assess compliance through structured evaluation methods.
- World Standards Day:
- Observed annually on October 14, it celebrates the efforts of thousands of experts who develop international standards across industries, ensuring quality and safety.
Tabular Summary:
| Parameter | Details |
| Event name | BIS National Awards 2025 to NIT Trichy Faculty |
| Announcement date | October 22, 2025 |
| Location | Noida (World Standards Day Celebration) |
| Issuing authority | Bureau of Indian Standards (BIS) |
| Key figures | Prof. K Muthukkumaran, S Velmathi, Keerti Manisha, Minister B L Verma |
| Awarded institution | NIT Trichy |
| Purpose/reason | For promoting standardization and confirmative assessment in education |
| Feature details | Best course integration and best write-up awards under national competition |
| Significance | Reinforces academic role in supporting national standards and quality goals |
Science and Technology – Daily Current Affairs October 23
12. According to ISRO Chairman V Narayanan, what percentage of the Gaganyaan mission development has been completed as of October 2025?
A) 75%
B) 80%
C) 85%
D) 90%
E) 95%
Answer: D) 90%
Event and Location:
- Event: ISRO confirms 90% completion of Gaganyaan mission development
- Location: ISRO Headquarters, Bengaluru
- Date: 23 October 2025
Mandates and Objectives:
- Mandates: ISRO Chairman V Narayanan announced that 90% of development work for the Gaganyaan mission — India’s first human spaceflight programme — has been completed. The next steps include three uncrewed missions before the final crewed mission, targeted for early 2027.
- Objectives: To demonstrate India’s capability in human spaceflight by developing human-rated rockets, crew escape and parachute systems, and an orbital module that ensures astronaut safety and mission success, making India the fourth country to send humans into space.
Important Terms Explained:
- Gaganyaan Mission: India’s first human spaceflight mission undertaken by ISRO, aimed at sending Indian astronauts into Low Earth Orbit (LEO) and bringing them back safely.
- The mission includes uncrewed test flights before a crewed launch by 2027.
- ISRO (Indian Space Research Organisation): India’s national space agency responsible for space research, satellite development, launch vehicles, and interplanetary missions.
- Vyommitra: A female humanoid robot developed by ISRO to simulate human functions and behavior in space for uncrewed missions before actual astronaut flights in the Gaganyaan programme.
- Integrated Air Drop Test: A critical test to validate the parachute-based deceleration system of the Gaganyaan crew module, ensuring safe splashdown post re-entry by simulating real mission scenarios.
Tabular Summary:
| Parameter | Details |
| Event name | ISRO announces 90% completion of Gaganyaan development |
| Announcement date | 23 October 2025 |
| Location | ISRO Headquarters, Bengaluru |
| Issuing authority | ISRO (Indian Space Research Organisation) |
| Policy/series name | Gaganyaan Human Spaceflight Programme |
| Key figures | V Narayanan (ISRO Chairman), Rajarajan A (VSSC), M Ganesh Pillai (ISRO) |
| Purpose/reason | Provide update on progress and timeline of India’s first human spaceflight |
| Feature details | Human-rated rocket, orbital module, parachute systems, crew escape system |
| Validity or status | Development 90% completed; three uncrewed missions scheduled before 2027 |
| Strategic/significant value | Establishes India as a human spaceflight-capable nation |
13. Which institute is partnering with the Delhi government to conduct artificial rain trials using cloud seeding?
A) IIT Bombay
B) IIT Delhi
C) IIT Kanpur
D) IIT Madras
E) IMD Pune
Answer: C) IIT Kanpur
Event and Location:
- Event: Cloud seeding project for artificial rain
- Location: Delhi, specifically northwest Delhi
Mandates and Objectives:
- Mandates:
- The Delhi government, in collaboration with IIT Kanpur, has planned five cloud seeding trials using a specially-equipped aircraft to create artificial rain. The trial is currently on hold due to lack of suitable cloud conditions as informed by the India Meteorological Department (IMD).
- Objectives:
- To assess the viability of artificial rain as a solution to reduce air pollution levels in Delhi during the winter months, particularly post-Diwali, when smog and poor air quality peak.
Important Terms Explained:
- Cloud Seeding:
- A weather modification technique where substances like silver iodide or potassium iodide are dispersed into clouds to encourage precipitation (rainfall). It requires specific atmospheric conditions, especially moisture-laden clouds.
- IIT Kanpur:
- One of India’s premier engineering institutes, IIT Kanpur is conducting the cloud seeding experiment using its Department of Aerospace Engineering and a Cessna 206-H aircraft (VT-IIT).
- Rule 26(2) of Aircraft Rules, 1937:
- This rule pertains to non-commercial aerial activities in Indian airspace and allows experimental operations like cloud seeding under strict safety and air traffic control regulations.
Tabular Summary:
| Parameter | Details |
| Event name | Artificial Rain (Cloud Seeding) Trials in Delhi |
| Announcement date | October 22, 2025 |
| Location | Northwest Delhi, aircraft stationed in Meerut |
| Issuing authority | Delhi Government in collaboration with IIT Kanpur and IMD |
| Policy/series name | Cloud Seeding for Pollution Control |
| Key figures | Manjinder Singh Sirsa (Delhi Environment Minister), IIT Kanpur Aerospace Dept |
| Purpose/reason | Combat post-Diwali air pollution via artificial rain |
| Feature details | 5 trials using a Cessna 206-H aircraft (VT-IIT), MoU signed with IIT Kanpur |
| Validity or status | On hold due to lack of suitable clouds, window open till Nov 30, 2025 |
| Strategic value | Potential long-term climate and pollution control strategy for urban areas |
Defence – Daily Current Affairs October 23
14. Which of the following systems was approved for acquisition by the Indian Army under the recent ₹79,000 crore DAC clearance?
A) Rafale Jets
B) Nag Missile System Mk-II
C) S-400 Missile Systems
D) Predator UAVs
E) Pinaka Rocket Systems
Answer: B) Nag Missile System Mk-II
Event and Location:
- Event: DAC approves ₹79,000 crore worth of defence procurement proposals
- Location: New Delhi, India
- Date: 23 October 2025
Mandates and Objectives:
- Mandates: The Defence Acquisition Council (DAC) chaired by Defence Minister Rajnath Singh cleared acquisition proposals worth ₹79,000 crore to strengthen India’s indigenous defence capabilities and armed forces’ operational readiness. Proposals include systems for the Army, Navy, and Air Force.
- Objectives: To advance indigenization, strengthen logistics and combat capabilities, and enhance India’s air, land, and naval power through acquisition of advanced weapons, platforms, and autonomous systems developed by domestic defence institutions like DRDO and BEL.
Important Terms Explained:
- Defence Acquisition Council (DAC): Apex decision-making body under the Ministry of Defence, chaired by the Defence Minister, responsible for approving capital acquisition proposals for the Indian Armed Forces.
- Nag Missile System (Tracked) Mk-II (NAMIS): An indigenous, fire-and-forget, third-generation Anti-Tank Guided Missile (ATGM) developed by DRDO and produced by Bharat Dynamics Ltd, capable of neutralizing tanks and bunkers.
- GBMES (Ground-Based Mobile ELINT System): A mobile electronic warfare system developed by DRDO and produced by BEL, designed to intercept, detect, and locate radar signals for battlefield surveillance and intelligence.
- CLRTS/DS (Collaborative Long Range Target Saturation/Destruction System): Fully autonomous swarm drones designed for precision long-range strikes in electronically contested environments, enhancing the IAF’s unmanned strike capability.
- LPDs (Landing Platform Docks): Amphibious warfare ships that provide sea-to-shore transport and logistics support for military and humanitarian operations.
Tabular Summary:
| Parameter | Details |
| Event name | Approval of ₹79,000 crore defence procurement proposals |
| Announcement date | 23 October 2025 |
| Location | New Delhi |
| Issuing authority | Defence Acquisition Council (DAC), Ministry of Defence |
| Policy/series name | Capital Acquisition for Armed Forces |
| Key figures | Defence Minister Rajnath Singh, CDS General Anil Chauhan, DRDO, BEL |
| Purpose/reason | Boost combat readiness and promote indigenous defence production |
| Feature details | NAMIS, GBMES, HMVs, LPDs, ALWT, CLRTS/DS among major systems approved |
| Validity or status | Approved for procurement; induction to follow based on timelines |
| Strategic/significant value | Strengthens India’s tri-services capabilities and defence preparedness |
International Affairs – Daily Current Affairs October 23
15. Where was the 14th India-Bhutan meeting on border management and security held?
A) New Delhi
B) Kolkata
C) Thimphu
D) Guwahati
E) Siliguri
Answer: C) Thimphu
Event and Location:
- Event: 14th India-Bhutan Border Management and Security Meeting
- Location: Thimphu, Bhutan
- Date: 16–17 October 2025
Mandates and Objectives:
- Mandates: India and Bhutan conducted the 14th bilateral meeting to review border security, cross-border cooperation, and emerging issues including signal spillover, boundary maintenance, and coordination of border agencies.
- Objectives: To enhance bilateral security cooperation, ensure safe and secure borders, strengthen capacity building for Bhutanese Police, and plan a future roadmap for integrated check posts and improved border infrastructure.
Important Terms Explained:
- Sashastra Seema Bal (SSB): One of India’s Central Armed Police Forces, responsible for guarding the Indo-Nepal and Indo-Bhutan borders, focusing on border security and anti-smuggling operations.
- Integrated Check Posts (ICPs): Border infrastructure projects that streamline movement of goods and people across borders with modern facilities including customs, immigration, and security services.
- Mobile Signal Spillover: A phenomenon where mobile signals from one country cross over into neighboring regions, causing technical and regulatory issues in cross-border areas.
Tabular Summary:
| Parameter | Details |
| Event name | 14th India-Bhutan Border Management and Security Meeting |
| Announcement date | 23 October 2025 (updated publicly) |
| Location | Thimphu, Bhutan |
| Issuing authority | Ministry of Home Affairs (India), Ministry of Home Affairs (Bhutan) |
| Policy/series name | Bilateral Border Cooperation Framework |
| Key figures | Rajendra Kumar (India), Sonam Wangyel (Bhutan) |
| Purpose/reason | Review of border security, infrastructure, and bilateral cooperation |
| Feature details | Capacity building, boundary pillar maintenance, mobile signal spillover |
| Validity or status | Held and concluded successfully on 17 October 2025 |
| Strategic/significant value | Reinforces India-Bhutan ties and promotes regional security and connectivity |
16. Who inaugurated the Global Chess League Experience Centre launched by Tech Mahindra in Dallas?
A) Magnus Carlsen
B) Peeyush Dubey
C) Garry Kasparov
D) Viswanathan Anand
E) R Praggnanandhaa
Answer: D) Viswanathan Anand
Event and Location:
- Event: Inauguration of Global Chess League Experience Centre
- Location: Plano, Dallas, Texas, USA
- Date: 23 October 2025
Mandates and Objectives:
- Mandates: Tech Mahindra launched the Global Chess League (GCL) Experience Centre at its US headquarters in Plano, Dallas, which was officially inaugurated by Viswanathan Anand, five-time World Chess Champion.
- Objectives: To create a global innovation hub that merges chess, artificial intelligence (AI), and digital platforms, aimed at making chess more interactive, engaging, and globally accessible, while promoting technological collaboration in the sport.
Important Terms Explained:
- Global Chess League (GCL): A premier global team-based chess league powered by Tech Mahindra, combining sport, entertainment, and technology to revolutionize professional chess tournaments and fan engagement.
- Experience Centre: A dedicated tech-powered space designed for showcasing innovations in chess using AI, analytics, and immersive platforms, fostering collaboration among players, federations, universities, and fans.
- AI in Chess: The use of Artificial Intelligence to analyze games, assist with digital coaching, power live match analysis, and build immersive chess learning and competitive experiences.
Tabular Summary:
| Parameter | Details |
| Event name | Inauguration of GCL Experience Centre |
| Announcement date | 23 October 2025 |
| Location | Plano, Dallas, Texas (USA) |
| Issuing authority | Tech Mahindra Global Chess League |
| Policy/series name | Global Chess League (GCL) |
| Key figures | Viswanathan Anand, Peeyush Dubey |
| Purpose/reason | Promote global innovation in chess via AI, tech platforms, and esports |
| Feature details | AI-powered live analysis, tournaments, fan engagement, university tie-ups |
| Validity or status | Operational; hosts events like Texas Women’s State Chess Championship |
| Strategic/significant value | Positions India-led tech innovation in global sports ecosystem |
17. Which Australian company did Telangana Minister Sridhar Babu invite to expand operations in the state during his visit to Australia?
A) BHP
B) Rio Tinto
C) Orica
D) Woodside
E) Fortescue Metals
Answer: C) Orica
Event and Location:
- Event: Telangana invites Orica to expand operations in the state
- Location: Melbourne, Australia / Telangana, India
- Date: October 23, 2025
Mandates and Objectives:
- Mandates:
- Telangana’s IT and Industries Minister D Sridhar Babu held a strategic meeting with Orica’s CEO Sanjeev Gandhi in Melbourne to explore collaboration and expansion of Orica’s operations in the state.
- Objectives:
- To attract foreign investment into Telangana, promote industrial innovation and sustainability, and strengthen the Global Capacity Centre (GCC) ecosystem in Hyderabad.
Important Terms Explained:
- Orica:
- An Australian multinational and the world’s largest manufacturer of industrial explosives, with core services in mining and infrastructure solutions.
- Global Capacity Centre (GCC):
- Centralised hubs where global firms manage digital operations, R&D, automation, and analytics; Hyderabad is emerging as a top GCC destination.
- Letter of Intent (LoI):
- A formal document indicating preliminary commitment between two parties—in this case, between the Telangana government and RMIT University, signed during the same visit.
Tabular Summary:
| Parameter | Details |
| Event name | Telangana’s investment outreach to Orica |
| Announcement date | October 23, 2025 |
| Location | Melbourne, Australia / Hyderabad, India |
| Issuing authority | Telangana Government – Ministry of IT & Industries |
| Policy/series name | Telangana Industrial Investment Promotion |
| Key figures | Minister D Sridhar Babu, CEO Sanjeev Gandhi |
| Purpose/reason | To invite expansion of Orica’s footprint in digital and industrial sectors |
| Feature details | Telangana highlighted its investor-friendly policies, GCC ecosystem |
| Validity or status | Ongoing engagement |
| Strategic value | Boosts global industrial partnerships and digital economy in Telangana |
Schemes – Daily Current Affairs October 23
18. Which organization launched the ‘Young Birders’ Month’ initiative to engage children in birdwatching and conservation?
A) Wildlife Institute of India
B) Nature Conservation Foundation
C) Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change
D) Bombay Natural History Society
E) Indian Bird Conservation Society
Answer: B) Nature Conservation Foundation
Event and Location:
- Event: Launch of ‘Young Birders’ Month’ (YBM) for children
- Location: PAN India (nationwide initiative)
- Date: 1–30 November 2025
Mandates and Objectives:
- Mandates: The Nature Conservation Foundation (NCF) through its birding initiative Early Bird, has launched ‘Young Birders’ Month’ (YBM) to be observed from November 1 to 30, 2025, coinciding with Children’s Day and the birth anniversary of Dr. Salim Ali. It is supported by WWF India.
- Objectives: To spark curiosity, ecological awareness, and a love for Nature among children by engaging them in bird-themed activities like bird walks, quizzes, outdoor games, art sessions, and interactive storytelling, thereby building a foundation for wildlife conservation.
Important Terms Explained:
- Young Birders’ Month (YBM): A first-of-its-kind nationwide event in India aimed at introducing children to birdwatching and Nature-based learning, conducted through offline and online events throughout November.
- Nature Conservation Foundation (NCF): A public charitable trust focused on scientific research and conservation of India’s wildlife and habitats, with initiatives like Early Bird to promote education and outreach.
- Early Bird: A bird education programme under NCF that provides learning tools, games, and guides on Indian birds for children and educators, designed to promote birdwatching as a tool for ecological literacy.
- Dr. Salim Ali: Known as the “Birdman of India”, he was one of India’s greatest ornithologists and naturalists. His birth anniversary (12 November) is widely commemorated by conservationists and bird lovers.
Tabular Summary:
| Parameter | Details |
| Event name | Launch of Young Birders’ Month (YBM) |
| Announcement date | 6 October 2025 |
| Location | Nationwide (India) |
| Issuing authority | Early Bird initiative, Nature Conservation Foundation |
| Policy/series name | YBM (Young Birders’ Month) |
| Key figures | Garima Bhatia (Programme Manager, Early Bird) |
| Purpose/reason | Encourage children to explore birdwatching and Nature conservation |
| Feature details | Bird walks, games, quizzes, art, storytelling, online and in-person events |
| Validity or status | Scheduled from 1–30 November 2025 |
| Strategic/significant value | Fosters ecological awareness and inspires future conservation leaders |
19. What is the main objective of the ‘Super GST – Super Savings’ campaign mentioned by Vizianagaram Collector?
A) Increase GST rates on luxury goods
B) Promote digital payments in rural areas
C) Raise awareness about GST rate reduction and its benefits
D) Launch new GST portal for businesses
E) Implement GST on agricultural equipment
Answer: C) Raise awareness about GST rate reduction and its benefits
Event and Location:
- Event: Super GST – Super Savings campaign gains public attention through awareness drives
- Location: Vizianagaram, Andhra Pradesh
- Date: 23 October 2025
Mandates and Objectives:
- Mandates: Vizianagaram District Administration, in collaboration with the GST Department and Chamber of Commerce, conducted awareness campaigns under the Super GST – Super Savings initiative to educate the public about the impact of revised GST slabs.
- Objectives: To inform the public about the reduction in GST tax slabs and how this leads to lower prices for essential goods, consumer durables, vehicles, and daily-use products, thereby ensuring better affordability and savings for consumers.
Important Terms Explained:
- GST (Goods and Services Tax): A unified indirect tax structure implemented in India since July 1, 2017, replacing multiple central and state taxes. It aims to simplify taxation, reduce cascading tax effect, and ensure a unified national market.
- Super GST – Super Savings: A public awareness initiative led by government agencies to showcase how recent reductions in GST slabs have led to price drops and increased affordability, especially for middle-class consumers.
- Chamber of Commerce: Local business associations that represent industries and commercial interests; they support initiatives like tax literacy, business reforms, and community outreach.
Tabular Summary:
| Parameter | Details |
| Event name | Super GST – Super Savings Awareness Campaign |
| Announcement date | 23 October 2025 |
| Location | Vizianagaram, Andhra Pradesh |
| Issuing authority | District Administration, GST Dept, Chamber of Commerce |
| Policy/series name | GST Reform Awareness Campaign |
| Key figures | S. Ramsundar Reddy (Vizianagaram Collector) |
| Purpose/reason | Educate citizens about GST slab reductions and resulting savings |
| Feature details | Price drops in essential goods, consumer products, two-wheelers, vehicles |
| Validity or status | Ongoing public awareness initiative |
| Strategic/significant value | Encourages GST compliance, transparency, and public understanding of tax reforms |
20. How much did the Union Government release to Andhra Pradesh under MGNREGS for FY 2025–26?
A) ₹500 crore
B) ₹665 crore
C) ₹700 crore
D) ₹831 crore
E) ₹166 crore
Answer: B) ₹665 crore
Event and Location:
- Event: Centre releases ₹665 crore to Andhra Pradesh under MGNREGS
- Location: Vijayawada, Andhra Pradesh
- Date: 22–23 October 2025
Mandates and Objectives:
- Mandates: The Union Ministry of Rural Development has released ₹665 crore to Andhra Pradesh as the first instalment of the material component under MGNREGS for FY 2025–26. The state government contributed ₹166 crore, taking the total funding to ₹831 crore.
- Objectives: To clear pending bills under MGNREGS up to March 31, 2025, and support rural employment and asset creation. Additionally, ₹50 crore was sanctioned under RGSA to support Panchayat building infrastructure, digitalisation, and training initiatives.
Important Terms Explained:
- MGNREGS (Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Scheme): A central government scheme that guarantees 100 days of wage employment per year to rural households. It focuses on unskilled manual work and rural asset development.
- Material Component (MGNREGS): A portion of MGNREGS funds allocated for materials and skilled wages used in the creation of durable assets (e.g., roads, water bodies).
- RGSA (Rashtriya Gram Swaraj Abhiyan): A centrally sponsored scheme to strengthen Panchayati Raj institutions through capacity building, training of Panchayat staff, and modernisation of Panchayat offices and governance.
Tabular Summary:
| Parameter | Details |
| Event name | Release of MGNREGS and RGSA funds to Andhra Pradesh |
| Announcement date | 22–23 October 2025 |
| Location | Vijayawada, Andhra Pradesh |
| Issuing authority | Ministry of Rural Development, Ministry of Panchayati Raj |
| Policy/series name | MGNREGS – Material Component (1st Instalment); RGSA |
| Key figures | K. Pawan Kalyan (Deputy CM), N. Chandrababu Naidu (CM), Shivraj Singh Chouhan, Lalan Singh |
| Purpose/reason | To support rural employment, clear pending liabilities, and strengthen Panchayats |
| Feature details | ₹665 crore (Centre) + ₹166 crore (State) under MGNREGS; ₹50 crore (RGSA) + ₹33 crore (State share) |
| Validity or status | Funds released; implementation underway |
| Strategic/significant value | Boosts rural development, local governance, and employment in Andhra Pradesh |
National Affairs – Daily Current Affairs October 23
21. Who launched the training modules on Public Health Management of Chemical Emergencies in October 2025?
A) Director General of WHO
B) Union Health Secretary
C) Prime Minister of India
D) Director of NCDC
E) Chairman of NDMA
Answer: B) Union Health Secretary
Event and Location:
- Event: Launch of training modules on Public Health Management of Chemical Emergencies
- Location: Nirman Bhawan, New Delhi
- Date: 23 October 2025
Mandates and Objectives:
- Mandates: The Union Health Secretary launched three specialized training modules on Public Health Management of Chemical Emergencies, developed by NCDC under the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare, in collaboration with NDMA and with technical support from WHO India.
- Objectives: The modules aim to strengthen the knowledge and skills of healthcare professionals and responders in managing chemical emergencies effectively, enhancing national preparedness and supporting compliance with International Health Regulations (IHR 2005).
Important Terms Explained:
- NCDC (National Centre for Disease Control): A premier institute under the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare responsible for the prevention and control of communicable and non-communicable diseases.
- NDMA (National Disaster Management Authority): The apex body for disaster management in India, responsible for formulating policies, plans, and guidelines to ensure effective disaster response.
- IHR (International Health Regulations) 2005: A legally binding international instrument coordinated by the World Health Organization (WHO) to prevent and respond to global public health risks that have the potential to cross borders.
Tabular Summary:
| Parameter | Details |
| Event name | Launch of Public Health Management of Chemical Emergencies Modules |
| Announcement date | 23 October 2025 |
| Location | Nirman Bhawan, New Delhi |
| Issuing authority | Ministry of Health and Family Welfare |
| Policy/series name | Training Modules on Chemical Emergency Management |
| Key figures | Union Health Secretary, NDMA officials, WHO India, NCDC experts |
| Purpose/reason | To equip public health responders with tools to manage chemical emergencies |
| Feature details | Three modules covering preparedness, pre-hospital, and medical management |
| Validity or status | Officially launched and available for implementation |
| Strategic/significant value | Enhances national public health response capacity and IHR compliance |
22. Which regulatory body granted approval to TNGECL for its battery energy storage projects?
A) Central Electricity Authority
B) Ministry of Power
C) Tamil Nadu Electricity Regulatory Commission
D) Tamil Nadu Renewable Energy Board
E) Southern Power Grid Authority
Answer: C) Tamil Nadu Electricity Regulatory Commission
Event and Location:
- Event: TNGECL receives regulatory nod for renewable energy storage projects
- Location: Chennai, Tamil Nadu
- Date: 23 October 2025
Mandates and Objectives:
- Mandates: Tamil Nadu Green Energy Corporation Ltd (TNGECL) received approval from the Tamil Nadu Electricity Regulatory Commission (TNERC) to float tenders for procuring Battery Energy Storage Systems (BESS) with a total capacity of 1500 MWh, structured as 375 MW × 4 hours systems.
- Objectives: To enhance the grid reliability, integrate renewable energy sources, and establish battery-based storage infrastructure to manage peak load and energy balancing in the state’s renewable energy network through tariff-based competitive bidding and e-reverse auction mechanisms.
Important Terms Explained:
- TNGECL (Tamil Nadu Green Energy Corporation Ltd): A state-run energy agency focused on developing renewable energy projects including solar, wind, and storage solutions for the state of Tamil Nadu.
- BESS (Battery Energy Storage System): A technology that allows energy from renewables (like solar or wind) to be stored and used when demand peaks or generation drops, crucial for grid stability and energy transition.
- Tariff-Based Competitive Bidding (TBCB): A transparent procurement process where developers bid on the price (tariff) at which they will supply energy or services, ensuring cost efficiency.
- E-Reverse Auction: A digital bidding process in which the lowest bidder wins, encouraging price discovery and cost-effectiveness in public procurement.
Tabular Summary:
| Parameter | Details |
| Event name | Approval of BESS tenders for TNGECL |
| Announcement date | 23 October 2025 |
| Location | Chennai, Tamil Nadu |
| Issuing authority | Tamil Nadu Electricity Regulatory Commission (TNERC) |
| Policy/series name | Battery Energy Storage Systems Procurement via TBCB |
| Key figures | TNGECL, TNERC |
| Purpose/reason | Enhance renewable energy integration and grid reliability |
| Feature details | 1500 MWh BESS capacity (375 MW × 4 hours), 1.5 full charge-discharge/day |
| Validity or status | Regulatory approval granted; tender process to follow |
| Strategic/significant value | Boosts Tamil Nadu’s clean energy goals, strengthens peak load management |
23. What percentage of underground tunnelling has been completed for Chennai Metro’s Phase II project as of October 2025?
A) 25%
B) 30%
C) 35%
D) 40%
E) 50%
Answer: C) 35%
Event and Location:
- Event: 35% underground tunnel construction completed for Chennai Metro Phase II
- Location: Chennai, Tamil Nadu
- Date: 23 October 2025
Mandates and Objectives:
- Mandates: Chennai Metro Rail Limited (CMRL) reported that 24.2 km out of 69.05 km of underground tunnelling for Phase II has been completed, marking 35% progress in tunnel construction.
- Objectives: To develop a 118.9 km metro network under Phase II, enhancing urban connectivity through three major corridors with safe, efficient, and sustainable public transport solutions in Chennai.
Important Terms Explained:
- Chennai Metro Rail Limited (CMRL): A special purpose vehicle established by the Government of Tamil Nadu for planning, execution, and operation of the Chennai Metro project.
- Tunnel Boring Machines (TBMs): Massive machines used to excavate tunnels through different soil and rock strata, critical for creating underground metro routes with minimal surface disruption.
- Phase II Project: A ₹63,246 crore expansion plan of the Chennai Metro involving 3 corridors – Corridor 3 (Madhavaram to SIPCOT), Corridor 4 (Light House to Poonamallee), and Corridor 5 (Madhavaram to Sholinganallur).
Tabular Summary:
| Parameter | Details |
| Event name | Chennai Metro Phase II underground tunnelling progress |
| Announcement date | 23 October 2025 |
| Location | Chennai, Tamil Nadu |
| Issuing authority | Chennai Metro Rail Limited (CMRL) |
| Project cost | ₹63,246 crore |
| Policy/series name | Chennai Metro Phase II |
| Key figures | 24.2 km completed out of 69.05 km tunnels |
| Corridors involved | Corridor 3 (Madhavaram–SIPCOT), Corridor 4 (Light House–Poonamallee), Corridor 5 (Madhavaram–Sholinganallur) |
| Purpose/reason | Improve mass transit and urban connectivity in Chennai |
| Feature details | 35% tunnelling completed; multiple TBMs operational across the city |
| Validity or status | Under construction; several TBMs currently in operation |
| Strategic value | Reduces traffic congestion, boosts public transport, supports urban development |
24. Which organization is partnering with Southern Air Command to host an industry outreach event on drone applications for island logistics?
A) CII
B) DRDO
C) NITI Aayog
D) FICCI
E) HAL
Answer: D) FICCI
Event and Location:
- Event: Industry outreach event on drone applications for island logistics and mobility
- Location: Thiruvananthapuram, Kerala
- Date: 31 October 2025 (scheduled event date)
Mandates and Objectives:
- Mandates: The Southern Air Command (SAC) of the Indian Air Force, in collaboration with FICCI, will host an industry outreach programme and exhibition on October 31, 2025, focused on Unmanned Aerial Systems (UAS).
- Objectives: To explore and promote logistics and mobility solutions using drones for Lakshadweep Islands, enhancing operational capabilities in remote and island territories through public-private collaboration.
Important Terms Explained:
- Southern Air Command (SAC): A regional command of the Indian Air Force headquartered in Thiruvananthapuram, responsible for the air defence of southern India and island territories like Lakshadweep and the Andaman & Nicobar Islands.
- FICCI (Federation of Indian Chambers of Commerce and Industry): One of India’s leading industry associations that supports economic development and public-private cooperation through policy advocacy, exhibitions, and outreach.
- Unmanned Aerial Systems (UAS): Also known as drones, these are remotely piloted or autonomous aircraft systems used for surveillance, logistics, deliveries, disaster management, and defense applications.
Tabular Summary:
| Parameter | Details |
| Event name | Industry outreach on drone applications for island logistics |
| Announcement date | 22 October 2025 |
| Event date | 31 October 2025 |
| Location | Thiruvananthapuram, Kerala |
| Issuing authority | Southern Air Command (IAF) & FICCI |
| Policy/series name | Unmanned Aerial Systems (UAS) Industry Outreach |
| Key figures | SAC officials, FICCI members, drone tech experts |
| Purpose/reason | Promote drone-based solutions for logistics in Lakshadweep Islands |
| Feature details | Industry exhibition, drone demonstrations, tech discussions |
| Validity or status | Scheduled event; preparations ongoing |
| Strategic value | Enhances drone ecosystem, supports island security and supply chain resilience |
25. How much worth of development works were approved by GVMC’s standing committee in October 2025?
A) ₹36.20 crore
B) ₹42.10 crore
C) ₹46.81 crore
D) ₹51.50 crore
E) ₹49.99 crore
Answer: C) ₹46.81 crore
Event and Location:
- Event: GVMC standing committee approves ₹46-crore development and public welfare proposals
- Location: Visakhapatnam, Andhra Pradesh
- Date: October 22, 2025
Mandates and Objectives:
- Mandates:
- The Greater Visakhapatnam Municipal Corporation (GVMC) Standing Committee approved 213 proposals related to engineering, public health, revenue, and administrative services.
- Objectives:
- To expedite urban infrastructure development, improve sanitation services, and ensure welfare measures for GVMC employees, including salary and service-related approvals.
Important Terms Explained:
- GVMC (Greater Visakhapatnam Municipal Corporation):
- The local governing body responsible for civic administration, infrastructure development, and public service delivery in Visakhapatnam, Andhra Pradesh.
- Standing Committee:
- A statutory committee in municipal corporations that reviews and approves major budgetary, administrative, and developmental proposals before implementation.
- Public Health Department:
- A civic department responsible for sanitation, waste management, and health-related municipal services, including staff welfare.
Tabular Summary:
| Parameter | Details |
| Event name | GVMC Standing Committee October 2025 Meeting |
| Announcement date | October 22, 2025 |
| Location | Visakhapatnam, Andhra Pradesh |
| Issuing authority | GVMC Standing Committee |
| Policy/series name | Infrastructure & Public Welfare Proposals |
| Key figures | Mayor Peela Srinivasa Rao |
| Purpose/reason | To approve development works and welfare-related proposals |
| Feature details | 213 proposals passed out of 217; ₹46.81 crore in engineering projects |
| Validity or status | Approved and set for implementation |
| Strategic value | Strengthens urban development and employee welfare |
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