Daily Current Affairs July 31

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July 31 | Daily Current Affairs 2025

Important Days – Daily Current Affairs July 31

1. What will the Maharashtra government observe on August 7 each year starting 2025?
A) National Food Security Day
B) Krishi Vigyan Day
C) Sustainable Agriculture Day
D) Farmers’ Innovation Day
E) Bio-Happiness Day
Answer: C) Sustainable Agriculture Day

Event and Location:

• Event: Declaration of MS Swaminathan’s birth anniversary as Sustainable Agriculture Day
• Location: Maharashtra, India
• Date: July 30, 2025 (Government Resolution issued)

Mandates and Objectives:

• Mandates: The Maharashtra government has announced that August 7, the birth anniversary of Bharat Ratna Dr. MS Swaminathan, will be observed as Sustainable Agriculture Day across the state. All agriculture universities in Maharashtra have been directed to establish a Bio-happiness Centre/Research Centre on themes such as sustainable agriculture, climate adaptation, or food security.
• Objectives: To honour the legacy of MS Swaminathan, promote sustainable agricultural practices, and encourage research and innovation in climate-resilient and food-secure farming systems.

Important Terms Explained:

• Sustainable Agriculture: Farming practices that meet current food needs without compromising the ability of future generations to meet theirs. It emphasizes environmental health, economic profitability, and social equity.
• Bio-Happiness Centre: A concept promoted by Dr. Swaminathan focusing on the happiness derived from biodiversity, ecological balance, and sustainable livelihoods.
• Climate Adaptation Technology: Tools and methods that help agricultural systems adapt to changing climate patterns, such as drought-resistant seeds, precision farming, and water-efficient irrigation systems.

Tabular Summary:

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Sports – Daily Current Affairs July 31

2. What test will World Athletics introduce to determine eligibility in the female category starting September 2025?
A) Gender identity interview
B) Bone density scan
C) SRY gene test
D) Chromosome karyotyping
E) Hormone level test
Answer: C) SRY gene test

Event and Location:

• Event: Introduction of new SRY gene-based eligibility regulations for female category
• Location: Global (first applied at World Athletics Championships, Tokyo)
• Date: Effective from September 1, 2025

Mandates and Objectives:

• Mandates: The World Athletics Council has mandated that starting 1 September 2025, all athletes competing in the female category must undergo a once-in-a-lifetime SRY gene test to confirm biological sex. The rule will first apply at the World Athletics Championships Tokyo 2025.
• Objectives: To preserve fairness in women’s sports by ensuring that female competition categories are reserved for biological females, while upholding athlete privacy, dignity, and data protection.

Important Terms Explained:

• SRY Gene Test: The Sex-determining Region Y (SRY) gene is found on the Y chromosome and triggers male sex development. Its presence confirms biological maleness. Testing it via cheek swab or blood helps determine biological sex for sports eligibility.
• DSD (Differences of Sex Development): A group of conditions where there is a discrepancy between chromosomal, gonadal, or anatomical sex. Under new rules, only some DSD athletes are eligible for female competition under strict provisions.
• Complete Androgen Insensitivity Syndrome (CAIS): A condition where a person has XY chromosomes but does not respond to male hormones, developing a female phenotype. Individuals with CAIS may compete in the female category if male puberty did not occur.
• Gender Diverse Athlete Working Group: A body formed by World Athletics that reviewed existing policies and advised on merging DSD and transgender regulations, developing a unified eligibility framework.

Tabular Summary:

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3. Which country will host the Asia Cup 2025 starting on September 9?
A) India
B) Pakistan
C) Sri Lanka
D) United Arab Emirates
E) Bangladesh
Answer: D) United Arab Emirates

Event and Location:

• Event: Asia Cup 2025 to be hosted in a neutral venue
• Location: United Arab Emirates (UAE)
• Date: Tournament to be held from September 9 to 28, 2025

Mandates and Objectives:

• Mandates:
  • The Asia Cup 2025 will feature eight teams, organized into two groups.
  • The tournament is being hosted in the UAE despite BCCI being the official host.
  • The 20-over T20I format will be used for this edition ahead of the T20 World Cup.
• Objectives:
  • To determine the continental cricket champion in Asia.
  • To maintain neutral ground play due to ongoing tensions between India and Pakistan.
  • To provide teams with T20I preparation ahead of the 2026 T20 World Cup.

Important Terms Explained:

• Asia Cup: A biennial cricket tournament organized by the Asian Cricket Council (ACC), featuring top Asian teams competing for continental supremacy.
• ACC (Asian Cricket Council): The governing body for cricket in Asia, established in 1983, responsible for promoting and developing the game in Asian nations.
• Neutral Venue Agreement: Due to political tensions, India and Pakistan have mutually agreed to compete only at neutral venues in ACC events until 2027.

Tabular Summary:

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4. Who won India’s first medal in 15 years at the World Junior Squash Championships 2025?
A) Joshna Chinappa
B) Dipika Pallikal
C) Malika Elkaraksy
D) Nadien Elhammamy
E) Anahat Singh
Answer: E) Anahat Singh

Event and Location:

• Event: Anahat Singh wins bronze at World Junior Squash Championships 2025
• Location: Cairo, Egypt
• Date: July 31, 2025 (semi-final match date)

Mandates and Objectives:

• Mandates:
  • Anahat Singh, a 17-year-old Indian squash player, won the bronze medal in women’s singles at the World Junior Squash Championships.
  • She reached the semi-finals, becoming the first Indian girl in 15 years to win a medal at this tournament.
• Objectives:
  • To represent India on the global squash stage and inspire more participation in the sport.
  • To break India’s medal drought at the junior world level in squash and encourage youth sports development.

Important Terms Explained:

• World Junior Squash Championships:
  • An annual international squash tournament organized by the World Squash Federation, featuring top under-19 talent from across the globe.
  • The tournament includes individual and team events, with medals awarded in men’s and women’s categories.
• Bronze Medal:
  • Awarded to players reaching the semi-finals in knockout tournaments. In squash, both losing semi-finalists receive bronze medals.
• Dipika Pallikal:
  • A pioneering Indian squash player and the last Indian girl before Anahat to win a medal (in 2010) at the World Junior Championships.

Tabular Summary:

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Ranking – Daily Current Affairs July 31

5. According to the World Bank’s 2025 report, what is India’s Gini Index score, making it the world’s 4th most equal society?
A) 28.8
B) 35.7
C) 25.5
D) 24.1
E) 32.4
Answer: C) 25.5

Event and Location:

• Event: India ranked as the world’s 4th most equal society
• Location: India (Global report released by World Bank)
• Date: July 9, 2025

Mandates and Objectives:

• Mandates: The World Bank has ranked India 4th globally in income equality with a Gini Index of 25.5, reflecting significant progress in reducing income disparity and poverty over the last decade.
• Objectives: To recognize India’s achievement in combining rapid economic growth with strong social equity, and to showcase the effectiveness of targeted welfare schemes, financial inclusion, and digital governance in poverty reduction.

Global Gini Index Rankings (2025 Report)

Important Terms Explained:

• Gini Index: A statistical measure of income inequality ranging from 0 (perfect equality) to 100 (maximum inequality). A lower score indicates more equal income distribution.
• Direct Benefit Transfer (DBT): A digital platform used by the Indian government to directly transfer subsidies and welfare funds into beneficiaries’ bank accounts, minimizing leakage and corruption.
• Ayushman Bharat Scheme: A health insurance scheme launched by the Government of India providing coverage of up to ₹5 lakh per family per year for secondary and tertiary care hospitalization.
• Pradhan Mantri Jan Dhan Yojana (PMJDY): A national mission for financial inclusion, offering banking services like zero-balance accounts, insurance, and pensions to the unbanked population.
• Stand-Up India Scheme: A financial initiative to support entrepreneurship among women and SC/ST communities through bank loans ranging from ₹10 lakh to ₹1 crore.
• PM Vishwakarma Yojana: A government scheme that supports traditional artisans with skill training, credit, and marketing support to promote self-employment and preserve heritage crafts.

Tabular Summary:

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6. According to the 2025 FAO report, what was the average global cost of a healthy diet per person per day in 2024?
A) $3.00
B) $4.46
C) $5.20
D) $2.15
E) $6.00
Answer: B) $4.46

Event and Location:

• Event: Release of the 2025 edition of The State of Food Security and Nutrition in the World report
• Location: Global (Published by FAO and partner UN agencies)
• Date: July 28, 2025

Mandates and Objectives:

• Mandates: The report, published by FAO, IFAD, UNICEF, WFP, and WHO, provides annual global monitoring for SDG 2 targets — ending hunger, food insecurity, and malnutrition.
• Objectives: To highlight the impact of food price inflation on global food security and nutrition, track hunger and malnutrition trends, and provide evidence-based policy recommendations to support SDG 2: Zero Hunger by 2030.

Hunger Prevalence by Region (2024 Data)

Important Terms Explained:

• Food Price Inflation: The rate at which the price of food increases over time, disproportionately affecting low-income households’ ability to afford nutritious diets.
• Food Insecurity: A condition where individuals lack reliable access to a sufficient quantity of affordable, nutritious food.
• Child Stunting: Low height for age, indicating chronic undernutrition.
• Child Wasting: Low weight for height, indicating acute undernutrition.
• Ultra-Processed Foods (UPFs): Industrially manufactured foods high in sugar, fats, salt, and additives but low in essential nutrients.
• Sustainable Development Goal 2 (SDG 2): A United Nations goal aiming to end hunger, ensure food security and improved nutrition, and promote sustainable agriculture by 2030.

Tabular Summary:

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Banking and Finance – Daily Current Affairs July 31

7. From when will the RBI’s revised guidelines on regulated entity investment in AIFs come into effect?
A) April 1, 2025
B) October 1, 2025
C) January 1, 2026
D) March 31, 2026
E) July 1, 2025
Answer: C) January 1, 2026

Event and Location:

• Event: RBI eases and revises norms on regulated entities’ investments in Alternative Investment Funds (AIFs)
• Location: India
• Date: July 29, 2025 (guidelines issued)

Mandates and Objectives:

• Mandates: The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has issued new directions capping total exposure by banks and NBFCs (regulated entities – REs) to Alternative Investment Funds (AIFs) at 20%, with a single RE’s contribution capped at 10% of any AIF scheme’s corpus.
• Objectives: To ease regulatory burden, bring clarity, prevent evergreening of loans, and align AIF investment rules with SEBI guidelines while maintaining credit discipline among regulated entities.

Important Terms Explained:

• Alternative Investment Funds (AIFs): Privately pooled investment funds (trust or company), including real estate funds, private equity, and hedge funds, regulated under SEBI (AIF) Regulations.
• Regulated Entities (REs): Financial institutions such as banks and NBFCs that fall under the supervision of RBI.
• Downstream Investment: Investments made by AIFs into companies. RBI now excludes equity instruments (like CCPS and CCDs) from provisioning requirements.
• Evergreening of Loans: A practice where lenders refinance or restructure stressed loans through indirect routes (like AIFs) to avoid classifying them as NPAs.
• Provisioning: Setting aside capital against potential losses. RBI now mandates 100% provisioning for REs investing over 5% in AIFs with downstream investments (excluding equity) in their own debtor companies.

Tabular Summary:

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8. Which public sector bank has partnered with KredX’s DTX platform to boost digital trade finance for Indian MSMEs?
A) Punjab National Bank
B) Bank of Baroda
C) Union Bank of India
D) Canara Bank
E) State Bank of India
Answer: D) Canara Bank

Event and Location:

• Event: Partnership between KredX’s DTX platform and Canara Bank for digital trade finance
• Location: Bengaluru, India (with national implications)
• Date: July 22, 2025

Mandates and Objectives:

• Mandates: KredX has partnered with Canara Bank to facilitate digital trade receivables discounting through its RBI-licensed TReDS platform – DTX, aiming to expand formal working capital access for Micro, Small, and Medium Enterprises (MSMEs).
• Objectives:
  • Bridge India’s ₹30 lakh crore MSME credit gap
  • Provide collateral-free, faster, affordable access to working capital
  • Advance the Government’s mandate for TReDS adoption and GSTN integration
  • Enable financial inclusion across the supply chain ecosystem

Important Terms Explained:

• TReDS (Trade Receivables Discounting System): A platform regulated by RBI that enables MSMEs to discount their trade receivables (invoices) digitally, improving access to short-term finance.
• DTX (Domestic Trade Exchange): KredX’s RBI-approved TReDS platform allowing MSMEs and large corporates to access low-cost working capital through digital invoice discounting.
• Receivable Discounting: A financial transaction where businesses sell their invoices to a third party (like a bank) to receive immediate payment before the invoice due date.
• Collateral-free Financing: Loans or credit extended without requiring physical assets as security, crucial for MSMEs.

Tabular Summary:

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9. Which life insurance company has partnered with ESAF Small Finance Bank to serve underserved markets?
A) HDFC Life Insurance
B) LIC of India
C) Shriram Life Insurance
D) ICICI Prudential Life
E) Max Life Insurance
Answer: C) Shriram Life Insurance

Event and Location:

• Event: Partnership between Shriram Life Insurance and ESAF Small Finance Bank to enhance life insurance penetration
• Location: India-wide, with announcement in Hyderabad, Telangana
• Date: July 23, 2025

Mandates and Objectives:

• Mandates: Shriram Life Insurance Company (SLIC) has entered into a corporate agency agreement with ESAF Small Finance Bank to distribute its life insurance products through the bank’s nationwide branch network.
• Objectives:
  • Expand insurance access to rural, low-income, and first-time insurance buyers
  • Drive financial inclusion by offering simple, affordable, and need-based insurance products
  • Strengthen ESAF’s role as a community-focused financial partner through inclusive protection offerings

Important Terms Explained:

• Corporate Agency Agreement: A regulatory-approved partnership where a bank (corporate agent) sells insurance products of one or more insurers through its branch network, helping expand product reach.
• Financial Inclusion: The process of ensuring access to appropriate financial products and services to all individuals, especially the underserved, at affordable costs.
• Term Insurance: A pure protection life insurance policy that offers financial coverage to the policyholder’s nominee in the event of death during the policy term.
• ULIP (Unit Linked Insurance Plan): A hybrid insurance product offering both life cover and investment in market-linked instruments.

Tabular Summary:

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Business and Economy – Daily Current Affairs July 31

10. What liquidity operation duration is the RBI reportedly considering as the new main tool instead of the current 14-day auctions?
A) 1-day
B) 3-day
C) 7-day
D) 10-day
E) 28-day
Answer: C) 7-day

Event and Location:

• Event: RBI unlikely to reintroduce fixed-rate liquidity operations
• Location: India
• Date: July 31, 2025

Mandates and Objectives:

• Mandates: The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) is expected to avoid reintroducing fixed-rate liquidity operations despite requests from banks. It may instead revise its liquidity framework to adopt 7-day variable rate operations as the primary tool, replacing the current 14-day operations.
• Objectives: To maintain a market-driven liquidity regime, discourage excessive reliance on central bank support, and enhance the efficiency of liquidity management while addressing short-term cash mismatches through variable rate tools.

Important Terms Explained:

• Fixed Rate Liquidity Operations: A monetary tool where RBI lends money to banks at a pre-determined fixed interest rate, allowing predictable funding access for banks.
• Variable Rate Repo/Reverse Repo: Instruments under which banks borrow (repo) or lend (reverse repo) funds via auction at market-determined rates. Encourages competitive bidding and aligns with RBI’s liquidity stance.
• Marginal Standing Facility (MSF): A window for banks to borrow overnight funds from RBI at a rate higher than the repo rate, forming the ceiling of the interest rate corridor.
• Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR): The percentage of a bank’s total deposits that must be maintained with the RBI as a reserve, influencing liquidity in the banking system.

Tabular Summary:

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Appointments – Daily Current Affairs July 31

11. Who has been appointed as the Chief Representative for the Port of Rotterdam Authority for India and South Asia?
A) Sanjay Sharma
B) Deepak Bagla
C) Amlan Bora
D) Rajiv Mishra
E) Manish Singh
Answer: C) Amlan Bora

Event and Location:

• Event: Appointment of Chief Representative for Port of Rotterdam Authority
• Location: India, Sri Lanka, Bangladesh
• Date: July 31, 2025

Mandates and Objectives:

• Mandates: Amlan Bora has been appointed to represent the Port of Rotterdam Authority across India, Sri Lanka, and Bangladesh through Dhanoni Advisory LLP in Ahmedabad.
• Objectives: The aim is to strengthen maritime cooperation, facilitate supply chain development in cargo, bulk, and hydrogen carriers, and explore synergies in critical raw materials trade between Europe and South Asia.

Important Terms Explained:

• Port of Rotterdam Authority: A public authority that manages the Port of Rotterdam in the Netherlands, the largest seaport in Europe, focusing on trade logistics and energy transitions.
• Hydrogen Carriers: Substances or methods used for storing and transporting hydrogen efficiently, crucial for advancing green energy systems.
• Critical Raw Materials: Strategically important resources vital for high-tech and green technologies, whose supply chain security is a priority for countries and trade alliances.

Tabular Summary:

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12. Who has been appointed as the new CEO of Air New Zealand effective from October 20, 2025?
A) Greg Foran
B) Dame Therese Walsh
C) Sundar Pichai
D) Nikhil Ravishankar
E) Ajay Banga
Answer: D) Nikhil Ravishankar

Event and Location:

• Event: Appointment of Nikhil Ravishankar as CEO of Air New Zealand
• Location: New Zealand (Global aviation industry relevance)
• Date: Announcement on July 31, 2025; assumes role on October 20, 2025

Mandates and Objectives:

• Mandates: Nikhil Ravishankar, currently Chief Digital Officer of Air New Zealand, has been appointed as the airline’s Chief Executive Officer, succeeding Greg Foran. The appointment was made after an international executive search and reflects the airline’s intent to strengthen digital innovation and customer-centric leadership.
• Objectives: To lead Air New Zealand into a future focused on technological transformation, service excellence, and competitive positioning against major Pacific carriers like Qantas and North American airlines. It also marks a shift toward next-generation leadership and increased customer and digital focus.

Important Terms Explained:

• Chief Digital Officer (CDO): A senior executive responsible for overseeing digital transformation, technology systems, and customer experience innovations in a company.
• AirPoints Membership: Air New Zealand’s frequent flyer loyalty program. A new top-tier membership level has recently been introduced to boost customer retention and engagement.
• Digital Transformation: The integration of digital technologies into all areas of a business to improve operations, customer experience, and competitiveness—central to Ravishankar’s vision as the new CEO.

Tabular Summary:

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Awards – Daily Current Affairs July 31

13. Which of the following won three PATA Gold Awards in 2019?
A) Karnataka Tourism
B) Tamil Nadu Tourism
C) Kerala Tourism
D) India Tourism Board
E) Goa Tourism
Answer: C) Kerala Tourism

Event and Location:

• Event: Kerala Tourism wins three PATA Gold Awards
• Location: Nur-Sultan (Astana), Kazakhstan
• Date: September 30, 2019 (award ceremony during PATA Travel Mart 2019)

Mandates and Objectives:

• Mandates:
  • Kerala Tourism received three PATA Gold Awards for:
    • Women-run ethnic food restaurant in Kumarakom under the Responsible Tourism Mission (RTM)
    • The ‘Come Out and Play’ advertisement campaign
    • Its official website www.keralatourism.org
• Objectives:
  • To recognize and reward excellence in travel and tourism initiatives.
  • To promote sustainable and inclusive tourism, especially initiatives led by women.
  • To enhance Kerala’s appeal as a global tourist destination through innovation in digital outreach and experience-driven campaigns.

Important Terms Explained:

• PATA (Pacific Asia Travel Association):
  • A non-profit association established in 1951 that promotes sustainable tourism in the Asia-Pacific region.
  • Organizes PATA Gold Awards annually to recognize exceptional achievements in the travel and tourism industry.
• Responsible Tourism Mission (RTM):
  • Kerala Tourism’s flagship initiative aimed at sustainable tourism by empowering local communities, especially women entrepreneurs, in tourism-linked enterprises.
  • Of the 15,500 RTM units, 13,500 are led by women.
• Come Out and Play Campaign:
  • A creative tourism advertisement campaign aimed at reconnecting people with nature and Kerala’s cultural heritage.
  • Promotes engaging tourist activities like houseboat rides, Ayurvedic therapies, and climbing coconut trees.

Tabular Summary:

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Defence – Daily Current Affairs July 31

14. MATSYA-6000, developed under the Deep Ocean Mission, is a human-occupied submersible being developed by which two Indian organizations?
A) ISRO and DRDO
B) ISRO and INCOIS
C) ISRO and NIOT
D) NIOT and CSIR
E) ISRO and NIO
Answer: C) ISRO and NIOT

Event and Location:

• Event: ISRO and NIOT collaborate to develop deep-sea human submersible MATSYA-6000
• Location: New Delhi, India
• Date of Announcement: July 23, 2025

Mandates and Objectives:

• Mandates:
  • Development of MATSYA-6000, a Human Occupied Vehicle (HOV) for deep-sea exploration.
  • Part of the Samudrayaan project under the Deep Ocean Mission by the Ministry of Earth Sciences (MoES).
• Objectives:
  • Facilitate deep ocean scientific exploration up to 6,000 meters.
  • Enable India to explore ocean resources and enhance underwater research capabilities.
  • Strengthen indigenous development of advanced marine technology.

Important Terms Explained:

• MATSYA-6000:
  • A deep-sea manned submersible, capable of carrying 3-member crew to a depth of 6 km.
  • Built with a Titanium alloy sphere (2260mm diameter, 80mm wall thickness) designed to withstand 600 bar pressure and -3°C temperatures.
• Samudrayaan Project:
  • India’s first manned ocean mission, akin to Gaganyaan for space but focused on underwater exploration.
  • Falls under the broader Deep Ocean Mission initiative of the Government of India.
• NIOT (National Institute of Ocean Technology):
  • A premier institution under MoES, responsible for marine tech innovation, including ocean vehicles and instruments.
• Deep Ocean Mission:
  • Flagship program of the Government of India aiming to explore deep ocean resources, including minerals, biodiversity, and environment.
• Human Occupied Vehicle (HOV):
  • Submersibles that allow human occupancy for underwater missions, unlike remotely operated vehicles (ROVs).

Tabular Summary:

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International Affairs – Daily Current Affairs July 31

15. What tariff rate has the United States imposed on semi-finished copper products starting August 1, 2025?
A) 10%
B) 25%
C) 35%
D) 50%
E) 60%
Answer: D) 50%

Event and Location:

• Event: US imposes 50% tariff on semi-finished copper products
• Location: United States (with global implications including India)
• Date: August 1, 2025

Mandates and Objectives:

• Mandates: The United States has enacted a 50% import tariff on all semi-finished copper products through an executive order citing national security concerns.
• Objectives: The tariff aims to reduce the country’s dependency on foreign copper supplies and protect critical sectors such as defence, clean energy, EVs, semiconductors, and infrastructure.

Important Terms Explained:

• Semi-Finished Copper Products: Includes copper plates, tubes, sheets, and other intermediate forms used in industrial manufacturing. These are subject to transformation into finished products.
• Protectionist Tariffs: A trade policy tool where governments impose high duties on imported goods to shield domestic industries from foreign competition and reduce strategic dependencies.
• Strategic Material: A classification for raw materials essential to national interest sectors, such as energy security, military applications, and critical infrastructure.

Tabular Summary:

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16. What is the primary objective of the recent MoU signed between the Indian Coast Guard and UAE Coast Guard?
A) Promote trade in marine products
B) Enhance maritime tourism
C) Cooperate on maritime security and safety
D) Develop submarine technology
E) Regulate shipping tariffs
Answer: C) Cooperate on maritime security and safety

Event and Location:

• Event: Signing of MoU on Maritime Security and Safety Cooperation between India and UAE
• Location: New Delhi, India
• Date: July 31, 2025

Mandates and Objectives:

• Mandates: The Indian Coast Guard (ICG) and the UAE Coast Guard signed a Memorandum of Understanding (MoU) to collaborate on various maritime functions, including Search and Rescue (M-SAR), Maritime Law Enforcement (MLE), Marine Pollution Response (MPR), and combating transnational crimes.
• Objectives: To strengthen institutional cooperation, enhance regional maritime safety and sustainability, and build joint capacity in critical coast guard operations between both nations.

Important Terms Explained:

• Maritime Search and Rescue (M-SAR): Coordinated operations to locate and help people in distress at sea, involving surveillance, communication, and rescue logistics.
• Maritime Law Enforcement (MLE): Legal framework and operations carried out to enforce maritime laws, including those related to smuggling, illegal fishing, and piracy.
• Marine Pollution Response (MPR): Strategic and operational measures taken to contain, clean, and prevent pollution in marine environments due to oil spills or hazardous substances.
• Friendly Foreign Countries (FFCs): Nations with whom India maintains formal cooperation agreements in key sectors like defence, maritime security, and trade.

Tabular Summary:

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17. Which treaty was signed between the UK and Australia in July 2025 to enable cooperation on nuclear-powered submarines?
A) AUKUS Technology Transfer Pact
B) Indo-Pacific Security Accord
C) Geelong Treaty
D) ANZUK Naval Agreement
E) Canberra Naval Defence Treaty
Answer: C) Geelong Treaty

Event and Location:

• Event: Signing of the Geelong Treaty for nuclear-powered submarine cooperation
• Location: Geelong, Australia
• Date: 26 July 2025

Mandates and Objectives:

• Mandates:
  • Signing of the Geelong Treaty between Australia and the UK for nuclear-powered submarine collaboration.
  • Treaty includes cooperation on the design, building, operation, sustainment, and disposal of SSN-AUKUS submarines.
  • Supports the rotational deployment of UK Astute-class submarines at HMAS Stirling under the Submarine Rotational Force – West.
• Objectives:
  • Strengthen bilateral defence cooperation under AUKUS Pillar I.
  • Build resilient trilateral supply chains with the US.
  • Ensure long-term regional and global maritime security in the Indo-Pacific and Euro-Atlantic regions.
  • Develop infrastructure, regulatory systems, and skilled workforce in submarine operations.

Important Terms Explained:

• Geelong Treaty: A bilateral agreement between Australia and the UK to collaborate on nuclear-powered submarines, reinforcing AUKUS defence cooperation over the next 50 years.
• SSN-AUKUS: A class of nuclear-powered submarines jointly developed by Australia, the UK, and the US under AUKUS Pillar I.
• AUKUS (Australia-UK-US): A trilateral security partnership formed in 2021 to enhance defence capabilities, particularly in the Indo-Pacific region, with a major focus on nuclear-powered submarines.

Tabular Summary:

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Schemes – Daily Current Affairs July 31

18. What is the revised budgetary allocation for the Pradhan Mantri Kisan Sampada Yojana (PMKSY) after the recent Cabinet enhancement?
A) Rs 4,600 crore
B) Rs 5,500 crore
C) Rs 6,000 crore
D) Rs 6,520 crore
E) Rs 7,000 crore
Answer: D) Rs 6,520 crore

Event and Location:

• Event: Budget enhancement for Pradhan Mantri Kisan Sampada Yojana (PMKSY)
• Location: India
• Date: July 31, 2025

Mandates and Objectives:

• Mandates: The Union Cabinet, chaired by Prime Minister Narendra Modi, approved an increase of ₹1,920 crore in the budgetary outlay of PMKSY, raising the total to ₹6,520 crore. This includes funds for 50 multi-product food irradiation units and 100 food testing laboratories.
• Objectives: The enhancement aims to support food processing infrastructure, reduce post-harvest losses, improve food safety compliance, and promote exports of processed food products.

Important Terms Explained:

• Pradhan Mantri Kisan Sampada Yojana (PMKSY): A flagship scheme launched in 2017 to promote food processing, boost agro-industrial growth, reduce wastage, and enhance farmers’ income through value addition in agricultural produce.
• Integrated Cold Chain and Value Addition Infrastructure (ICCVAI): A component of PMKSY that supports the development of cold chain logistics and infrastructure for perishable agricultural and horticultural produce.
• Food Safety and Quality Assurance Infrastructure (FSQAI): A component scheme of PMKSY focused on setting up NABL-accredited food testing labs to ensure compliance with domestic and international food safety standards.
• Food Irradiation: A technology used to preserve food, eliminate microbes, extend shelf life, and reduce post-harvest losses without compromising nutritional value.

Tabular Summary:

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19. Under which scheme has the Bihar government raised the monthly pension for journalists to ₹15,000?
A) Bihar Media Vikas Yojana
B) Bihar Patrakar Samman Yojana
C) Bihar Journalist Welfare Scheme
D) Bihar Journalist Samman Pension Scheme
E) Bihar Press Security Initiative
Answer: D) Bihar Journalist Samman Pension Scheme

Event and Location:

• Event: Bihar Government increases monthly pension for journalists
• Location: Bihar, India
• Date: July 31, 2025

Mandates and Objectives:

• Mandates:
  • CM Nitish Kumar has revised the pension amount under the Bihar Journalist Samman Pension Scheme
  • Pension increased from ₹6,000 to ₹15,000 per month for eligible journalists
  • Spousal pension in case of death of the journalist also increased from ₹3,000 to ₹10,000 per month
• Objectives:
  • To ensure dignified post-retirement life for journalists
  • To recognize journalists as the fourth pillar of democracy
  • To promote independence and impartiality in journalism by improving social security

Important Terms Explained:

• Bihar Journalist Samman Pension Scheme:
  • A state welfare scheme offering monthly pensions to retired journalists in Bihar
  • Initially provided ₹6,000 per month; revised in 2025 to ₹15,000 per month
  • Offers dependent spouse pension after the journalist’s death
• Fourth Pillar of Democracy:
  • A term commonly used to refer to journalism/media
  • Highlights the importance of free press in supporting democratic governance
• Spousal Pension:
  • A financial benefit provided to the dependent spouse of a deceased pension holder
  • Under this scheme, it ensures continuity of support at ₹10,000/month

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National Affairs – Daily Current Affairs July 31

20. Which Indian state is set to host Google’s $6 billion data centre, the company’s largest such investment in Asia?
A) Karnataka
B) Telangana
C) Tamil Nadu
D) Andhra Pradesh
E) Maharashtra
Answer: D) Andhra Pradesh

Event and Location:

• Event: Google to invest $6 billion in a data centre project
• Location: Visakhapatnam, Andhra Pradesh, India
• Date: July 31, 2025

Mandates and Objectives:

• Mandates: Google will develop a 1-gigawatt data centre and its supporting power infrastructure in Visakhapatnam, with $2 billion of the investment earmarked for renewable energy capacity. This will be Google’s largest data centre project in Asia.
• Objectives: To expand Google’s data centre portfolio in the Asia-Pacific region, support India’s growing digital infrastructure, and contribute to green energy goals while helping Andhra Pradesh attract high-value investments in technology and infrastructure.

Important Terms Explained:

• Data Centre: A dedicated facility that houses computer systems and associated components for storing, processing, and managing data. High-capacity centres are essential for cloud computing, AI, and internet services.
• Renewable Energy Capacity: Investment aimed at installing infrastructure (e.g., solar, wind) to generate sustainable power, helping reduce the carbon footprint of large facilities like data centres.
• Cable Landing Station: A physical location where undersea internet cables arrive and are connected to domestic networks. These stations ensure high-speed data transmission and are crucial for global digital connectivity.

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21. What percentage of total Indian Railways coaches are now non-AC as per the latest update?
A) 50%
B) 60%
C) 70%
D) 78%
E) 80%
Answer: C) 70%

Event and Location:

• Event: Increase in non-AC coaches and expansion of Amrit Bharat services by Indian Railways
• Location: India
• Date: July 31, 2025

Mandates and Objectives:

• Mandates: Indian Railways has increased the share of non-AC coaches to 70% and has provisioned the production of 17,000 additional non-AC general and sleeper coaches over the next 5 years. It has also planned the rollout of 100 more Amrit Bharat trains.
• Objectives: To provide affordable and modern rail services for the general public and lower-income groups, enhance travel comfort in non-AC segments, and increase seat capacity in unreserved/general coaches.

Important Terms Explained:

• Amrit Bharat Trains: A new category of fully non-AC trains designed to provide modern and affordable travel for general and sleeper class passengers, equipped with upgraded facilities and better comfort.
• Namo Bharat Rapid Rail: A semi-high-speed regional rail system focused on urban and regional connectivity with modern coaches, primarily targeting the middle and lower-income segments.
• General Class Coaches: Unreserved or low-cost coaches with no prior seat booking requirement, designed for maximum affordability and capacity for the common man.
• MEMU/EMU Trains: Mainline Electric Multiple Units (MEMU) and Electric Multiple Units (EMU) are used for short-distance and suburban routes, typically with non-AC unreserved seating.

Tabular Summary:

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Over All Review

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