Daily Current Affairs April 10

Dear Champions, as you all know that a lot of competitive exams have been notified consequently. Candidates have to prepare themselves according to the level of competition and expectation of the Recruitment board. Regarding that one of the most important topic is Daily Current Affairs April 10. Current Affairs in the form of contemporary events of national & international play a crucial role in almost every competitive exams like Banking, Insurance, SSC, UPSC, TNPSC, Railway etc.

Current affairs are the most dynamic yet scoring among all sections and need to be prepared from the right source. Here, we cafunsta team, providing  Daily GK Updates, Current Affairs Questions, and Monthly  current affairs pdf.

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April 10| Daily Current Affairs 2023

Important Days – Daily Current Affairs April 10

1. In below option, which is correct in related to World Homeopathy Day?
1) It is celebrated on April 10 every year
2) It commemorate the birth anniversary of German physician Dr. Samuel Hahnemann, the founder of homeopathy
3) The theme is “One Health, One Family”
A) Only 1
B) Only 2
C) Only 3
D) Only 1 & 2
E) All of these
Answer: E) All of these

• World Homeopathy Day is celebrated on April10 every year to commemorate the birth anniversary of German physician Dr. Samuel Hahnemann, the founder of homeopathy

World Homeopathy Day history:

• Dr Samuel Hahnemann, the founder of homeopathy was born in Paris on April 10, 1755. While practising, he found that in order to treat a patient’s sickness, the ingredients that cause the disease’s symptoms must be administered.
• He developed the principle of ‘similia similibus curentur’, meaning ‘let like cure like’, in the late 18th century. Thus, homeopathy works on the principle of “like cures like”.
• This year will be the 268th birth anniversary of Dr Hahnemann
• This year, the theme is “One Health, One Family.”

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Sports – Daily Current Affairs April 10

2. In below option, which is correct pair in related to start the sport events in cricket?
1) Duleep Trophy – June 28, 2023
2) Syed Mushtaq Ali Trophy – October 16, 2023
3) Ranji Trophy – January 5, 2024
A) Only 1
B) Only 2
C) Only 3
D) Only 1 & 3
E) All of these
Answer: E) All of these

• Indian cricket’s 2023-24 domestic season will kick-start with the Duleep Trophy tournament starting on June 28 while the flagship Ranji Trophy set to commence from January 5, next year.
• The Duleep Trophy, which will be played among six zonal teams, will be followed by Deodhar Trophy (List A) (July 24 to August 3), Irani Cup (October 1-5), Syed Mushtaq Ali Trophy men’s T20 national championships (October 16-November 6) and Vijay Hazare Trophy (November 23-December 15).
• Ranji Trophy will be last tournament of the men’s senior calendar with the elite group league matches to be played from January 5 to February 19, while the knock-out round will be from February 23 to March 14. The duration of the tourney is for 70 days.
• The senior women’s season will begin with the national T20 championships to be played between October 19 to November 9, followed by Inter-Zonal T20 Trophy from November 24 to December 4.
• This will be followed by senior women’s one-day trophy to be played between January 4-26.
• The senior women’s T20 Trophy and one-day trophy will have five groups — two with eight teams and three with seven teams. The two top teams from each of the five groups will qualify for the knock-outs.

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3. Who won the title at the World Chess Armageddon Asia and Oceania Event?
A) Viswanathan Anand
B) Magnus Carlsen
C) Hikaru Nakamura
D) Fabiano Caruana
E) D Gukesh
Answer: E) D Gukesh

• Teenaged Indian Grandmaster D Gukesh stunned former world rapid champion Nodirbek Abdusattorov of Uzbekistan in the final to win the World Chess Armageddon Asia & Oceania event
• Each day of the tournament, the matches consisted of two blitz games and, if necessary, an Armageddon game (five minutes for White, four for Black). An Armageddon game is a variant of blitz chess to determine a winner after a series of drawn game. A drawn game in the Armageddon is counted as a win for Black.

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Ranking – Daily Current Affairs April 10

4. In below option, which is not correct in related to State Energy Efficiency Index (SEEI)?
1) The index developed by the Bureau of Energy Efficiency (BEE) in association with Alliance for an Energy-Efficient Economy (AEEE)
2) Piyush Goyal launched the State Energy Efficiency Index (SEEI) 2021-22 report
3) Andhra Pradesh, Karnataka, Kerala, Rajasthan and Telangana are the front-runners in the State Energy Efficiency Index (SEEI) 2021-22
A) Only 1
B) Only 2
C) Only 3
D) Only 1 & 3
E) All of these
Answer: B) Only 2

• Andhra Pradesh, Karnataka, Kerala, Rajasthan and Telangana are the front-runners in the State Energy Efficiency Index (SEEI) 2021-22. These states are leading with a score above 60. Power Minister R. K. Singh has released the SEEI report in New Delhi
• Rajasthan and Kerala are the other two states in the front-runner category which shows that states scored more than 60 points on various parameters under SEEI to assess state-level energy efficiency initiatives
• Assam, Haryana, Maharashtra, and Punjab are in the achiever category, scoring points between 50-60 on the index parameters
• The index developed by the Bureau of Energy Efficiency (BEE) in association with Alliance for an Energy-Efficient Economy (AEEE), assesses the annual progress of states and UTs in energy efficiency implementation for FY 2020-21 and 2021-22. SEEI 2021-22 has an updated framework of 50 indicators aligned with national priorities.
• Union Power Minister R K Singh launched the State Energy Efficiency Index (SEEI) 2021-22 report.
• Further, Karnataka, Andhra Pradesh, Assam and Chandigarh are the top-performing states in their respective state groups
• According to the report, Telangana and Andhra Pradesh showed the most improvement since the last index

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Banking and Finance – Daily Current Affairs April  10

5. ______ proposes to subscribe non-convertible debentures worth ___________ of Tata Power Delhi Distribution Ltd (TPDDL), to enhance Delhi’s power distribution through grid enhancements?
A) ADB, ₹ 150 Crore
B) World Bank, ₹350 Crore
C) IMF, ₹ 150 Crore
D) World Bank , ₹ 150 Crore
E) ADB, ₹ 150 Crore
Answer: E) ADB, ₹ 150 Crore

• Multilateral funding agency ADB proposes to subscribe non-convertible debentures worth ₹ 150 crore of Tata Power Delhi Distribution Ltd (TPDDL), to enhance Delhi’s power distribution through grid enhancements.
• Besides, Asian Development Bank (ADB) agreed to provide $2 million grant to partially finance the purchase and integration of a pilot battery energy storage system (BESS)
• The 10-megawatt-hour (MWh) BESS is South Asia’s first grid-scaled energy storage project at the distribution transformer level.
• The grant to finance the BESS is provided by Goldman Sachs and Bloomberg Philanthropies’ Climate Innovation and Development Fund (CIDF) and administered by ADB.
• In 2022, the power ministry targeted battery storage capacity of 4 per cent of total electricity consumption by 2030. To reach that goal, India would need a total battery energy storage capacity of 182 gigawatt-hours by 2030
• Launched in September 2021, CIDF is a blended finance facility managed by ADB, established with an initial USD 25 million philanthropic commitment from Bloomberg Philanthropies and Goldman Sachs
• The fund has the potential to unlock up to USD 500 million in private sector and governmental investments in support of sustainable low-carbon economic development and help catalyze a clean energy transition in South and Southeast Asia.

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6. Which payment app has launched 4G-enabled Soundbox 3.0 to further empower merchant partners across the country with seamless and secure payment collections?
A)Paytm
B)Amazon Pay
C)BharatPe
D)PhonePe
E)Google Pay
Answer: A)Paytm

• One97 Communications Limited that owns the brand Paytm, country’s payments and financial services company and the pioneer of QR and mobile payments, has launched 4G-enabled Soundbox 3.0 to further empower merchant partners across the country with seamless and secure payment collections.
• Tech innovator Paytm was the first to launch audio confirmations in India with the Paytm Soundbox.
• As of March 31, 2023, more than 6.8 million merchants are now paying subscriptions for Paytm’s payment devices like Soundbox and PoS.
• The auto-assisted device supports 11 languages including English, Hindi, Tamil, Telugu, Kannada, Marathi, Malayalam, Bengali, Gujarati, Punjabi and Odia.
• Paytm Soundbox enables merchants to keep track of payments with instant audio alerts in multiple regional languages. It also provides flexibility and convenience to merchants with support for multiple payment methods such as Paytm Wallet, Paytm Postpaid (BNPL), Paytm UPI and other BHIM UPI apps, net banking and cards.

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7. Which two companies have partnered to offer consumer-centric motor insurance policies?
A) Bajaj Auto and SBI Life Insurance
B) Bajaj Finserv and SBI Life Insurance
C) Bajaj Finance and SBI General Insurance
D) Bajaj Allianz and SBI General Insurance
E) Bajaj Capital and SBI Life Insurance
Answer: C) Bajaj Finance and SBI General Insurance

• To ensure a hassle-free purchase of motor insurance policies, SBI General Insurance has collaborated with Bajaj Finance to offer one-of-its-kind car and bike insurance policies.
• Vehicle owners can visit the Bajaj Finance portal to buy the SBI General car and bike insurance policies online in just a few steps. The process is simple and less time-consuming.
• The SBI General Two-Wheeler Insurance Policy – Package covers accidental damages caused to the owner’s vehicle and third-party property and life. The insurer also offers customers a wide range of add-on covers to enhance their basic plan.
• SBI General’s Private Car Insurance Policy – Package is an all-in-one four-wheeler insurance policy tailored to provide customers comprehensive coverage against accidental losses.

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8. RBI announced final guidelines for financial sector businesses to outsource information technology (IT)-related services effective _________?
A) 1 September 2023
B) 1 October 2023
C) 1 November 2023
D) 1 December 2023
E) 1 May 2023
Answer: B) 1 October 2023

• The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) announced final guidelines for financial sector businesses to outsource information technology (IT)-related services effective 1 October.
• The agency has given existing contracts that are due for renewal before 1 October a 12-month grace period to comply with the standards. The RBI-regulated financial institutions have been asked to comply with the requirements within 36 months of the renewal dates for agreements that are due for renewal on or after 1 October.
• In the case of new outsourcing arrangements (agreements entered into before 1 October), the entities must comply with the new rules “preferably” from the agreement date but no later than 12 months from the date the norms were issued.
• The new regulations apply to all Indian banks, NBFCs, main cooperative banks, credit information businesses and other institutions regulated by the RBI
• Regulated Entities (RE) must have a detailed board-approved IT outsourcing policy strategy.
• The guidelines stated that REs should have a robust grievance redressal procedure in place and that the obligation for resolving customer issues connected to outsourced services will be borne by the RE.
• The regulated entities also have an exit strategy in place to ensure business continuity before, during and after the leave. The strategy should include exit strategies for various scenarios of exit or termination of services, with a minimum period to execute such plans, as necessary

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Acquisitions and Mergers – Daily Current Affairs April 10

9. The Ministry of Mines has given in-principle approval to DIPAM for divestment of its stake in BALCO (Bharat Aluminium Company Ltd). The Centre owns _____ per cent in BALCO?
A) 43
B) 44
C) 45
D) 46
E) 49
Answer: E) 49

• The Ministry of Mines has given in-principle approval to DIPAM for divestment of its stake in BALCO (Bharat Aluminium Company Ltd).
• While the Centre owns 49 per cent in the aluminium-maker, Anil Agarwal’s Vedanta holds the majority 51 per cent.
• Of the nine directors on BALCO’s board (including Chairman SK Roongta), four are government nominated. All four are posted in the Ministry of Mines.
• BALCO produces nearly 20 per cent of the country’s aluminium requirement and has an annual production capacity 6,00,000 tonnes.

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International Affairs – Daily Current Affairs April 10

10. A bilateral air exercise between the Indian Air Force (IAF) and the United States Air Force (USAF) — Exercise Cope India 23 — is being held at which place?
1) Panagarh (in West Bengal’s Paschim Bardhaman district)
2) Kalaikunda (in West Bengal’s Paschim Medinipur district)
3) Agra in Uttar Pradesh
A) Only 1
B) Only 2
C) Only 3
D) Only 1 & 3
E) All of these
Answer: E) All of these

• A bilateral air exercise between the Indian Air Force (IAF) and the United States Air Force (USAF) — Exercise Cope India 23 — is being held at Air Force stations in Panagarh (in West Bengal’s Paschim Bardhaman district), Kalaikunda (in West Bengal’s Paschim Medinipur district) and Agra in Uttar Pradesh
• The exercise aims to enhance mutual understanding between the two Air Forces and share their best practices.
• Both sides will field the C-130J and C-17 aircraft, with the USAF operating an MC-130J as well.
• This phase of the exercise will focus on air mobility and will involve transport aircraft and special forces assets from both the air forces.
• The B1 bombers and F-15 E fighters will join the exercise.
• Two B1 bombers had joined the American exhibits at Aero India in Bengaluru in February but this will be for the first time that the aircraft will be part of an exercise in India.
  the US will deploy two B1 bombers, four to six F-15 Es, one C-17 and two C130s.
• In June 2016, the US designated India a “Major Defence Partner” paving way for sharing of critical military equipment and technology.
• The two countries have also inked key defence and security pacts over the past few years, including the Logistics Exchange Memorandum of Agreement (LEMOA) in 2016 that allows their militaries to use each other’s bases for repair and replenishment of supplies.
• The two sides also signed COMCASA (Communications Compatibility and Security Agreement) in 2018 which provides for interoperability between the two militaries and provides for the sale of high-end technology from the US to India.
• In October 2020, India and the US sealed the BECA (Basic Exchange and Cooperation Agreement) agreement to further boost bilateral defence ties. The pact provides for sharing of high-end military technology, logistics and geospatial maps between the two countries

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National Affairs – Daily Current Affairs April 10

11. Uttar Pradesh has topped in Pradhan Mantri Kisan Samman Nidhi Yojana. Pradhan Mantri Kisan Samman Nidhi Yojana was launched by PM Modi on ______________?
A) May 24, 2019
B) March 24, 2019
C) April 24, 2019
D) February 24, 2019
E) January 24, 2019
Answer: D) February 24, 2019

• Uttar Pradesh government led by Chief Minister Yogi Adityanath, has topped in Pradhan Mantri Kisan Samman Nidhi Yojana
• Uttar Pradesh has also emerged as a ‘leader state’ by performing well in the implementation of 32 schemes
• Pradhan Mantri Kisan Samman Nidhi Yojana was launched by PM Modi on February 24, 2019, from Gorakhpur in Uttar Pradesh. As part of this scheme, a total of Rs 6,000 each is sent directly to the bank accounts of an estimated 11 crore farmers in the country every year — in three instalments of Rs 2,000 each.

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12. The state cabinet cleared three major proposals to benefit weavers in UP. In below option, which is that scheme?
1) CM Handloom and Powerloom Industry Development Scheme (General)
2) Jhalkari Bai Kori Handloom and Powerloom Development Scheme
3) Atal Bihari Vajpayee Powerloom Weaver Power Flat Rate Scheme
A) Only 1
B) Only 2
C) Only 3
D) Only 1 & 3
E) All of these
Answer: E) All of these

• The state cabinet cleared three major proposals to benefit weavers in UP, including setting up a flat rate for power dues for weavers across the state.
• The cabinet cleared the CM Handloom and Powerloom Industry Development Scheme (General), Jhalkari Bai Kori Handloom and Powerloom Development Scheme and the Atal Bihari Vajpayee Powerloom Weaver Power Flat Rate Scheme
• CM Handloom and Powerloom Industry Development Scheme (General)
• Under the CM handloom scheme, which will be in place for five years, beneficiaries will be selected based on the budget availability in 2023-24.
• The expenditure on each weaver will be Rs 5,000 which the government will give as grant.
• Under the scheme, the government will give a grant of Rs 25,000 or 80% of the cost of a pitloom and Rs 40,000 or 75% of a frameloom. For a powerloom, the government will give a grant of Rs 75,000 or 60% of the cost, Rs 90,000 or 60% of the cost of a semi-automatic powerloom and Rs 30 lakh or 60% of the cost of an automatic powerloom.
• The remaining cost will have to be borne by the beneficiary through personal means of bank loans

Jhalkari Bai Kori Handloom and Powerloom Development Scheme

• Jhalkari Bai Kori Handloom and Powerloom Development Scheme for weavers is similar to the CM scheme but is meant for people from the scheduled castes.
• Under this, those who are running powerlooms or handlooms from their homes will be eligible for the scheme or even those who are working for others but have land of their own and the ability to bear the cost of purchasing the loom

Atal Bihari Vajpayee Powerloom Weaver Power Flat Rate Scheme

• Under the Atal Bihari Vajpayee Powerloom Weaver Power Flat Rate Scheme, the government has identified 57,510 weavers with a 0.5 horsepower powerloom and 3,131 with 1 horsepower powerloom at a 5KW connection in rural areas. In urban areas this is 1,76,066 and 14,115 weavers, respectively.
• The scheme, which kicks in from April 1, 2023, usage of fans and lights should not be more than 10% of the load

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13. Which district has topped the country in implementation of the Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Scheme?
A) Bargarh district
B) Ganjam district
C) Koraput district
D) Cuttack district
E) Khurda district
Answer: B) Ganjam district

• Ganjam district in Odisha has once again occupied the top position in the country in implementation of Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Scheme (MGNREGS) and creation of jobs during 2022-23 financial year.
• Hinjilicut block in the district achieved the distinction of providing the highest number of wage days to women workers in Odisha.

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14. Where is the Jatayu Conservation and Breeding Centre located?
A) UP’s Lucknow district
B) UP’s Varanasi district
C) UP’s Maharajganj district
D) Bihar’s Patna district
E) West Bengal’s Kolkata district
Answer: UP’s Maharajganj district

• Jatayu Conservation and Breeding Centre (JCBC) in UP’s Maharajganj district, the world’s first conservation and breeding centre built and designed exclusively for the conservation of Asian king vulture, is ready and may be inaugurated anytime soon by Chief Minister Yogi Adityanath. Asian king vulture is critically endangered and protected under the Wildlife Protection Act.
• Spread over 1.5 hectares in the Gorakhpur forest division, it is a state-of-the-art centre, worth around Rs 15 crore
• The red-headed vulture (Sarcogyps calvus), also known as the Asian king vulture, is localized primarily to northern India. In 2004, the species was uplisted to ‘near threatened’ from ‘least concern’ by the IUCN. In 2007, it was uplisted to‘critically endangered’ in the IUCN Red List

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